AQA Physics Paper 1 Practice Quiz (32 questions)

1. Isotopes are distinguished from atoms of different elements by which characteristics?

A. Atoms of one element can have different neutron numbers while retaining their element identity.

B. Atoms of different elements are identified by differences in neutron number alone.

C. Atoms of different elements are distinguished by having different proton numbers.

D. Isotopes share a proton number but have different neutron numbers.

E. The conventional nuclear symbol for an isotope gives its element, neutron number and mass number.

Answer: (A), (C), (D)

Explanation

Isotopes are atoms of the same element, so they share a proton number and differ in neutron number. Different elements have different proton numbers; neutron number alone does not distinguish elements. A conventional nuclear symbol gives the element, proton number and mass number.

2. Regarding the activity of a radioactive source:

A. The activity of a radioactive source is expressed in kilograms.

B. A Geiger–Müller tube measures radioactive activity in joules.

C. Radioactive activity measures the total number of stable nuclei in a source.

D. Radioactive activity is measured in becquerels, using a Geiger–Müller tube.

E. Radioactive activity measures the rate at which unstable nuclei decay.

Answer: (D), (E)

Explanation

Activity is the rate of decay of unstable nuclei and is measured in becquerels with a Geiger–Müller tube. It is not a count of stable nuclei and is not expressed in joules or kilograms.

3. Which characteristics distinguish alpha, beta and gamma radiation?

A. The three types differ in penetration and air range but have identical ionising power.

B. The three radiation types have different ranges in air but identical penetration.

C. Alpha, beta and gamma radiation differ in ionising power but share the same penetration.

D. Penetration through materials, range in air and ionising power distinguish these radiations.

E. Alpha, beta and gamma radiation differ in penetration, range in air and ionising power.

Answer: (D), (E)

Explanation

The three radiation types differ in penetration through materials, range in air and ionising power. The false statements incorrectly claim that one or more of these characteristics are identical.

4. A radioactive isotope’s half-life is the time required for which change?

A. The remaining undecayed nuclei are reduced by half during this time.

B. The number of undecayed nuclei falls to half its initial amount.

C. The isotope’s activity halves over one half-life interval.

D. The activity of the isotope decreases to half its initial value.

E. The number of decayed nuclei falls to half its initial amount.

Answer: (A), (B), (C), (D)

Explanation

Half-life is the time taken for either the number of undecayed nuclei or the activity to halve. The number of decayed nuclei is not the quantity defined as halving.

5. How is the density of a substance calculated?

A. Density is calculated by multiplying mass and volume: $\rho = mV$.

B. Mass divided by volume gives density, represented by $\rho = \frac{m}{V}$.

C. Density is determined by measuring an object's mass and temperature.

D. The density formula relates mass and volume as $\rho = \frac{m}{V}$.

E. Density is found by dividing mass by volume: $\rho = \frac{m}{V}$.

Answer: (B), (D), (E)

Explanation

Density is mass divided by volume, expressed as $\rho = \frac{m}{V}$. Measuring temperature does not provide the volume required to calculate density.

6. In the particle model, how does particle motion differ among the three states?

A. Solid particles are closely packed in fixed arrangements, while liquid particles can move past one another.

B. Liquid particles remain close together and are fixed in position.

C. Gas particles are widely spaced and move freely.

D. Particles in solids are widely spaced, while gas particles remain closely packed.

E. Liquid particles occupy fixed positions, whereas solid particles move past one another.

Answer: (A), (C)

Explanation

Solid particles are closely packed in fixed arrangements, while liquid particles remain close and move past one another. Gas particles are widely spaced and move freely; fixed positions are characteristic of solids, not liquids.

7. What happens to a substance’s mass and properties during a change of state?

A. A change of state preserves both mass and all of a substance’s properties.

B. Changes of state are irreversible even when the substance’s mass is conserved.

C. A change of state is reversible and changes properties without changing mass.

D. A substance can reverse a change of state, with its mass remaining unchanged.

E. A change of state changes a substance’s mass while preserving its properties.

Answer: (C), (D)

Explanation

A change of state is reversible and alters a substance’s properties without changing its mass. The false statements either claim that mass changes, the change is irreversible, or the properties remain unchanged.

8. Which description best characterizes the internal energy of a system?

A. It is the energy transferred to the system during a change of state.

B. It is the total kinetic energy of the system's particles, excluding their potential energy.

C. It is the total kinetic and potential energy of particles in the system.

D. It includes particle kinetic energy and potential energy within the system.

E. It is stored in the atoms and molecules that make up the system.

Answer: (C), (D), (E)

Explanation

Internal energy comprises the kinetic and potential energies of the system’s particles, stored in its atoms and molecules. It is not limited to kinetic energy or defined as energy transferred during a state change.

9. Regarding specific heat capacity and specific latent heat, which statements are accurate?

A. Specific heat capacity concerns energy needed to change a substance’s temperature.

B. Specific latent heat concerns energy transferred during a change of state.

C. Both quantities describe energy transferred during a change of state.

D. Specific latent heat is measured in joules per kilogram per degree Celsius.

E. Specific heat capacity describes energy transferred as a substance changes state.

Answer: (A), (B)

Explanation

Specific heat capacity relates to energy needed for a temperature change, while specific latent heat relates to energy transferred during a state change. Specific latent heat is measured per unit mass, not per unit mass per degree Celsius, and specific heat capacity does not describe energy transferred during a state change.

10. A material of mass $m$ has specific heat capacity $c$ and temperature change $\Delta\theta$. Its thermal energy change is calculated as:

A. A larger temperature change increases the calculated thermal energy change, for fixed mass and specific heat capacity.

B. The temperature-change calculation uses mass and specific heat capacity.

C. $\Delta E = mc\Delta\theta$ gives the change in thermal energy.

D. $\Delta E = mL$ gives the change in thermal energy.

E. The temperature-change calculation uses latent heat in place of specific heat capacity.

Answer: (A), (B), (C)

Explanation

Thermal energy change is calculated with $\Delta E = mc\Delta\theta$, using mass, specific heat capacity, and temperature change. $mL$ applies to energy transferred during a change of state; with the other quantities fixed, greater temperature change gives greater thermal energy change.

11. For a mass $m$ undergoing a change of state, which relation gives the transferred energy?

A. The calculation uses specific heat capacity and temperature change.

B. The transferred energy is calculated using $E = mc\Delta\theta$.

C. The calculation uses mass and specific latent heat.

D. The calculation describes energy needed for a temperature change.

E. The transferred energy is calculated using $E = mL$.

Answer: (C), (E)

Explanation

Energy transferred during a state change is calculated using $E = mL$, where $L$ is specific latent heat. The expression involving specific heat capacity and temperature change describes thermal energy change as temperature changes, not energy transferred during a state change.

12. Which statements describe gas molecules and the effect of temperature on their motion?

A. Gas molecules have random motion within a gas.

B. Gas molecules remain stationary between collisions with the container.

C. Raising gas temperature increases the molecules’ average kinetic energy.

D. Gas molecules move constantly and randomly.

E. Raising gas temperature decreases the molecules’ average kinetic energy.

Answer: (A), (C), (D)

Explanation

Gas molecules are in constant random motion, and higher temperature increases their average kinetic energy. They do not remain stationary between collisions, and their average kinetic energy does not decrease as temperature rises.

13. A gas is heated while its volume is held constant. Which outcomes follow?

A. The particles’ kinetic energy increases as the gas is heated.

B. The gas volume increases as its pressure rises at constant volume.

C. The gas particles transfer more force to the container walls during collisions.

D. The gas pressure rises as particles collide more forcefully with container walls.

E. The gas pressure falls because the particles collide less forcefully.

Answer: (A), (C), (D)

Explanation

At constant volume, heating increases particle kinetic energy and raises pressure because collisions with the walls become more forceful. The volume is held fixed, and the pressure does not fall as the collisions intensify.

14. For a fixed mass of gas at constant temperature, what happens when its pressure changes?

A. Decreasing pressure increases the gas volume.

B. Increasing pressure decreases the gas volume.

C. Increasing pressure leaves the gas volume unchanged.

D. Decreasing pressure leaves the gas volume unchanged.

E. The relationship applies when the gas temperature is changing.

Answer: (A), (B)

Explanation

For a fixed gas mass at constant temperature, pressure and volume change in opposite directions: increasing pressure decreases volume, while decreasing pressure increases it. The volume does not remain unchanged when pressure changes, and the stated relationship is not the one specified for changing temperature.

15. Which equations can be used to calculate electrical power?

A. The power equations include potential difference, current, and resistance.

B. Electrical power can be calculated using $P = VI$.

C. Electrical power can be calculated using $P = IR^2$.

D. Electrical power can be calculated using $P = V/I$.

E. Electrical power can be calculated using $P = I^2R$.

Answer: (A), (B), (E)

Explanation

The stated power equations are $P = VI$ and $P = I^2R$, involving potential difference, current, and, in the second equation, resistance. Dividing potential difference by current or squaring resistance instead does not match either equation.

16. Which expressions calculate the electrical energy transferred?

A. Electrical energy transferred is calculated using $E = P/t$.

B. The expressions use power and time or charge and potential difference.

C. Electrical energy transferred is calculated using $E = Pt$.

D. Electrical energy transferred is calculated using $E = V/I$.

E. Electrical energy transferred is calculated using $E = QV$.

Answer: (B), (C), (E)

Explanation

Electrical energy transferred is calculated using $E = Pt$ or $E = QV$. Dividing voltage by current or power by time does not give either stated energy relation.

17. Regarding the National Grid and efficient energy transfer:

A. The National Grid links power stations to consumers using cables and generators.

B. Raising potential difference increases current and makes energy transfer more efficient.

C. The National Grid links power stations to consumers using cables and transformers.

D. Raising potential difference makes energy transfer more efficient.

E. Raising potential difference reduces current in the energy-transfer system.

Answer: (C), (D), (E)

Explanation

The National Grid is a system of cables and transformers linking power stations to consumers. Raising potential difference reduces current and improves transfer efficiency; substituting generators for transformers or claiming that current increases contradicts these facts.

18. Charge and current are related by which statements?

A. Charge is calculated by dividing current by elapsed time, using $Q = I/t$.

B. Charge is calculated as current multiplied by elapsed time, using $Q = It$.

C. Charge is calculated by dividing potential difference by current, using $Q = V/I$.

D. Charge is calculated by multiplying resistance by elapsed time, using $Q = Rt$.

E. Charge is calculated by multiplying potential difference by elapsed time, using $Q = Vt$.

Answer: (B)

Explanation

The relationship is $Q = It$: charge equals current multiplied by time. The other expressions substitute an incorrect operation or circuit quantity.

19. If a component’s resistance increases while the potential difference stays fixed, what happens to its current?

A. The current decreases because the component opposes charge flow more strongly.

B. The current increases because resistance draws additional charge from the source.

C. The current increases because the component allows charge to flow less easily.

D. The current decreases because the source potential difference falls as resistance rises.

E. The current remains unchanged because potential difference determines it by itself.

Answer: (A)

Explanation

At a fixed potential difference, increasing resistance decreases the current through the component. A component that allows charge to flow less easily has greater resistance, so that change does not increase the current. The source potential difference need not fall, and it does not determine current by itself.

20. Which statements distinguish current and potential difference in series and parallel circuits?

A. Series components have the same current, while parallel components share potential difference.

B. Each series component has the same current passing through it.

C. Each parallel component has the same potential difference across it.

D. Parallel components have the same current, while series components share potential difference.

E. Series components share potential difference, while parallel components have the same current.

Answer: (A), (B), (C)

Explanation

Series components share current, whereas parallel components share potential difference. The statements that reverse these circuit relationships are incorrect.

21. How is the total resistance of two series components calculated?

A. Their total resistance is the difference between the resistances, $R_{\text{total}} = R_1 - R_2$.

B. Their total resistance is the product of the resistances, $R_{\text{total}} = R_1R_2$.

C. Their total resistance is the ratio of the resistances, $R_{\text{total}} = R_1/R_2$.

D. Their total resistance is the mean of the resistances, $R_{\text{total}} = (R_1 + R_2)/2$.

E. Their total resistance is the sum of the resistances, $R_{\text{total}} = R_1 + R_2$.

Answer: (E)

Explanation

For two components in series, total resistance is $R_{\text{total}} = R_1 + R_2$. Subtraction, multiplication, division, and averaging do not give the stated series total.

22. What happens to total resistance when resistors are added in series or parallel?

A. Adding resistors in parallel decreases total resistance.

B. Adding resistors in parallel increases the current through the circuit.

C. Adding resistors in series decreases the current through the circuit.

D. Adding resistors in series increases total resistance.

E. Adding resistors in either arrangement leaves total resistance unchanged.

Answer: (A), (D)

Explanation

Adding resistors in series increases total resistance, whereas adding resistors in parallel decreases it. At a given potential difference, greater resistance reduces current, and lower resistance increases current; the proposed current changes therefore do not match the stated arrangements. Adding resistors in either arrangement does not leave total resistance unchanged.

23. Which statements describe alternating and direct current and voltage?

A. UK mains electricity supplies direct voltage.

B. Direct current and voltage periodically reverse direction.

C. UK mains electricity supplies alternating current.

D. Alternating current and voltage periodically change direction.

E. Direct current and voltage remain in one direction.

Answer: (C), (D), (E)

Explanation

Alternating current and voltage periodically change direction, while direct current and voltage remain in one direction. UK mains electricity is alternating, so it does not supply direct voltage.

24. Which statements describe the potential of UK mains wires relative to earth?

A. The live wire is about 0 V relative to earth, while neutral is about 230 V.

B. The potential difference between live and earth is about 230 V.

C. Neutral is at or close to earth potential, about 0 V.

D. The human body is at or close to earth potential, about 0 V.

E. The live wire is about 230 V relative to earth.

Answer: (B), (D), (E)

Explanation

Live is about 230 V relative to earth, while neutral and the human body are at or close to 0 V. The statement reversing the live and neutral potentials is incorrect.

25. Why can a live wire remain dangerous when the mains switch is open?

A. A live wire can cause harm only while current flows through a neutral wire.

B. A live-to-neutral connection is the stated reason an open-switch live wire remains dangerous.

C. An open switch changes the live wire’s potential to about 0 V.

D. An open mains switch makes the live wire safe by grounding it.

E. A live-to-earth connection can cause harm even with the mains switch open.

Answer: (E)

Explanation

A live wire can remain dangerous with the switch open because a connection between live and earth can cause harm. Opening the switch does not itself ground the live wire or change its potential to 0 V.

26. Which statements describe a system in the context of energy stores?

A. An individual object can form a system when its energy stores change.

B. A system can consist of one object or a group of objects whose energy stores may change.

C. A group of objects can be treated as a system when their energy stores change.

D. A system must contain several objects before its energy stores can change.

E. A system is an object whose energy stores remain fixed during energy transfers.

Answer: (A), (B), (C)

Explanation

A system may be one object or a group, and the defining feature is that its energy stores can change. Energy stores need not remain fixed, and multiple objects are not required.

27. For an object of mass $m$ moving at speed $v$, which statements about its kinetic energy are correct?

A. Its kinetic energy is calculated as $E_k = mv^2$.

B. Its kinetic energy is calculated as $E_k = \frac{1}{2}mv$.

C. Its kinetic energy is calculated using the object's mass and the square of its speed.

D. Doubling its speed while keeping its mass fixed makes its kinetic energy four times greater.

E. Its kinetic energy is calculated as $E_k = \frac{1}{2}mv^2$.

Answer: (C), (D), (E)

Explanation

Kinetic energy is $E_k = \frac{1}{2}mv^2$, so it depends on mass and speed squared. Doubling speed therefore quadruples the energy; the expressions without the factor of one-half or without squaring speed are incorrect.

28. An object is raised above ground level. Which statements describe the gravitational potential energy it gains?

A. The gain is calculated from mass multiplied by gravitational field strength and height.

B. The gain is calculated using $E_p = mgv$, where $v$ is the object's speed.

C. The gain is calculated using $E_p = mgh$, with height measured above ground level.

D. The gain depends on the object's mass, gravitational field strength, and raised height.

E. The gain is calculated using $E_p = \frac{1}{2}mgh$, with height measured above ground level.

Answer: (A), (C), (D)

Explanation

The gravitational potential energy gained is $E_p = mgh$, involving mass, gravitational field strength, and height above ground level. A factor of one-half or speed in place of height does not match this relationship.

29. Which statements describe energy transfers in a system?

A. Energy may be transferred usefully, stored, or dissipated, while total system energy remains unchanged.

B. Energy cannot be created or destroyed, so the total energy in a system does not change.

C. Energy may be transferred between stores without changing the system's total energy.

D. Energy may be transferred usefully, stored, or dissipated, causing total system energy to increase.

E. Dissipation destroys energy and therefore reduces the system's total energy.

Answer: (A), (B), (C)

Explanation

Energy can be transferred, stored, or dissipated, but it cannot be created or destroyed; the total energy in the system remains unchanged. Dissipation does not destroy energy, and transfers do not cause the total to increase.

30. When energy is transferred in a system, which statements characterize useful and wasted energy?

A. Some energy is transferred usefully, while the remainder is wasted.

B. Reducing unwanted energy transfers increases the amount of energy created.

C. Wasted energy is the useful output required for the intended process.

D. Unwanted energy transfers can be reduced to limit wasted energy.

E. All energy in a system is transferred usefully when its intended process operates.

Answer: (A), (D)

Explanation

Only some energy is transferred usefully; the remainder is wasted, and unwanted transfers can be reduced. Not all energy is useful, and reducing waste does not create energy or redefine wasted energy as useful output.

31. Which statement defines a renewable energy resource?

A. A resource is renewable when it is consumed at a low rate by users.

B. A resource is renewable when it is replenished naturally.

C. A resource is renewable when it is imported from another country.

D. A resource is renewable when its supply is continually increased by electricity generation.

E. A resource is renewable when it is replenished through human extraction and processing.

Answer: (B)

Explanation

A renewable energy resource is one that is replenished naturally. Processing, electricity generation, consumption rate, and importation do not define whether a resource is renewable.

32. When evaluating an energy resource, which considerations are relevant?

A. Resource evaluation includes environmental, ethical, political, social, and economic factors.

B. Evaluation considers environmental issues but excludes ethical considerations.

C. Environmental and ethical issues form part of evaluating an energy resource.

D. Limitations associated with an energy resource are relevant to its evaluation.

E. Political, social, and economic considerations contribute to resource evaluation.

Answer: (A), (C), (D), (E)

Explanation

Evaluating energy resources includes environmental and ethical issues, political, social, and economic considerations, and limitations. Ethical considerations are therefore not excluded.