Quiz: Human Development Across the Lifespan — 52 questions

1. What does the study of human development examine?

A. Changes caused by schooling during the adolescent years

B. Changes from conception through death across several domains

C. Changes during childhood across physical growth alone

D. Changes in social behavior during adulthood alone

Answer: (B)

Explanation

Human development examines changes from conception through death in physical, cognitive, emotional, and social domains, shaped by genes, environment, and experience. Focusing on physical growth or a single life period does not capture the field’s full scope.

2. Which research design repeatedly tests the same participants over time?

A. A longitudinal design

B. A time-of-measurement design

C. A cross-sectional design

D. A cohort-comparison design

Answer: (A)

Explanation

A longitudinal design follows and retests the same people across time. A cross-sectional design instead compares different age groups at one point in time.

3. Researchers find that adults who grew up during a major economic crisis differ from adults who grew up during prosperity; what may explain this difference?

A. A cohort effect

B. An ageing effect

C. A testing effect

D. A maturation effect

Answer: (A)

Explanation

A cohort effect reflects differences produced by growing up in different historical conditions rather than by ageing itself. An ageing effect would attribute the difference to changes associated with getting older.

4. How does a cross-sequential design help developmental researchers distinguish among age, cohort, and measurement-time effects?

A. It tests one age group once under identical conditions

B. It compares historical groups without repeating any measurements

C. It compares age groups and later retests those same groups

D. It follows one participant continuously without age comparisons

Answer: (C)

Explanation

A cross-sequential design first compares different age groups and later retests those same groups, providing evidence for separating age, cohort, and time-of-measurement effects. A single measurement cannot provide the same comparisons over time.

5. Which example best represents a nurture influence on development?

A. A biological variation present at conception

B. A trait transmitted through inherited DNA

C. A chromosome received from a biological parent

D. Learning shaped by caregiving and education

Answer: (D)

Explanation

Nurture refers to environmental influences such as caregiving, education, culture, nutrition, and experience. Inherited DNA and chromosomes represent biological influences associated with nature.

6. What does behavioral genetics investigate?

A. How learned behaviors are stored in individual memories

B. How chromosomes are counted during cell division

C. How environmental toxins damage developing organs

D. How genes and environments contribute to trait differences

Answer: (D)

Explanation

Behavioral genetics studies how genetic and environmental factors contribute to differences in human traits. Counting chromosomes or studying memory storage addresses different biological or psychological questions.

7. What is a gene?

A. A DNA segment carrying instructions for a protein or cell process

B. A chemical nutrient required for normal tissue growth

C. A complete set of chromosomes found in a body cell

D. A visible characteristic produced by environmental experience

Answer: (A)

Explanation

A gene is a stretch of DNA that carries instructions for a particular protein or cell process. A complete chromosome set contains many genes, while nutrients and visible traits are not genes themselves.

8. How many chromosomes are normally found in a human body cell?

A. 46 chromosomes arranged in 23 pairs

B. 48 chromosomes arranged in 24 pairs

C. 23 chromosomes arranged in 46 pairs

D. 44 chromosomes arranged in 22 pairs

Answer: (A)

Explanation

Almost every human body cell contains 46 chromosomes arranged in 23 pairs, with one chromosome of each pair inherited from each parent. Eggs and sperm instead contain 23 single chromosomes.

9. What distinguishes a dominant allele from a recessive allele?

A. A recessive allele cannot influence an inherited trait

B. A dominant allele can be expressed in one copy

C. A recessive allele is expressed whenever one copy is present

D. A dominant allele requires two identical copies to be expressed

Answer: (B)

Explanation

A dominant allele can be expressed when present in one copy, whereas a recessive allele usually appears when paired with another identical recessive allele. Thus, recessive alleles can influence traits even when their effects are not expressed in a single-copy state.

10. Which pattern of inheritance best explains variation in height?

A. A chromosome-number error during gamete formation

B. One recessive allele inherited from each parent

C. One dominant allele determining the trait

D. Many genes interacting with environmental influences

Answer: (D)

Explanation

Height is influenced by many genes acting together with environmental factors, which is polygenic inheritance. A single allele or a chromosome-number error does not describe this multifactorial pattern.

11. What is characteristic of a carrier of a recessive disease variant?

A. The person has an extra chromosome that causes the disorder

B. The person has two disease copies and typically develops symptoms

C. The person lacks the variant but can acquire it through experience

D. The person usually has no symptoms but can pass the variant on

Answer: (D)

Explanation

A carrier has one copy of a recessive disease variant, usually has no symptoms, and can transmit the variant to children. Symptoms are more likely when a person inherits two recessive disease copies, not merely one carrier copy.

12. Why is early treatment important for infants with phenylketonuria (PKU)?

A. It can eliminate every inherited disease variant from the body

B. It can prevent brain damage caused by phenylalanine buildup

C. It can prevent an extra chromosome from forming in sperm

D. It can restore a missing chromosome before cell division

Answer: (B)

Explanation

In PKU, failure to break down phenylalanine can cause brain damage and severe intellectual disability unless screening identifies the condition and treatment begins early. Treatment addresses the harmful buildup; it does not change chromosome number or remove every inherited variant.

13. What is a zygote?

A. A developing embryo formed after several weeks of prenatal growth

B. A single cell formed when a sperm and egg join, containing 46 chromosomes

C. A reproductive cell containing 46 chromosomes before fertilisation occurs

D. A pair of cells formed when two eggs join with one sperm

Answer: (B)

Explanation

A zygote forms when sperm and egg unite and carries the complete set of 46 chromosomes. An egg or sperm normally contains 23 chromosomes, so it is not itself a zygote with the full chromosome set.

14. Which description correctly distinguishes monozygotic from dizygotic twins?

A. Monozygotic twins develop from two sperm joining one egg, whereas dizygotic twins develop from one sperm joining two eggs

B. Monozygotic twins arise from one fertilised egg, whereas dizygotic twins arise from two fertilised eggs

C. Monozygotic twins arise from two fertilised eggs, whereas dizygotic twins arise when one egg splits

D. Monozygotic twins may differ in sex, whereas dizygotic twins are genetically alike and share one sex

Answer: (B)

Explanation

Monozygotic twins result when one fertilised egg splits, while dizygotic twins result from two eggs fertilised by two sperm. The genetic similarity and sex pattern therefore differ between the two types.

15. Which sequence correctly orders the major periods of prenatal development?

A. Germinal from conception to about eight weeks, embryonic until birth, then fetal after delivery

B. Germinal from conception to about two weeks, embryonic to about eight weeks, then fetal until birth

C. Fetal from conception to about two weeks, germinal to about eight weeks, then embryonic until birth

D. Embryonic from conception to about two weeks, germinal to about eight weeks, then fetal until birth

Answer: (B)

Explanation

Prenatal development begins with the germinal period, followed by the embryonic period and then the fetal period. The fetal period continues from about eight weeks until birth.

16. Which situation best illustrates the meaning of a teratogen?

A. An infection that can harm a developing fetus, with effects shaped by timing and dose

B. A chromosome pattern established at fertilisation that determines the infant’s sex

C. A normal prenatal change that supports fetal growth regardless of environmental conditions

D. A newborn reflex that helps an infant respond automatically after birth

Answer: (A)

Explanation

A teratogen is a substance or infection capable of harming an embryo or fetus. Its effects can vary with timing, dose, duration of exposure and genetic vulnerability, rather than being a normal developmental change.

17. What major physiological transition begins after birth as the newborn becomes independent of the placenta?

A. The newborn replaces digestion with placental nutrient exchange during the first weeks

B. The newborn begins producing all nutrients through the placenta and postpones independent breathing

C. The newborn stops regulating temperature while relying on the placenta for circulation

D. The newborn begins independent breathing, circulation, temperature regulation and digestion

Answer: (D)

Explanation

After birth, the newborn must independently breathe, circulate blood, regulate temperature and digest nutrients. Placental support characterizes prenatal life, so it does not describe the newborn’s postnatal transition.

18. Why can an absent or asymmetric newborn reflex be clinically significant?

A. It can confirm that the infant’s senses are developing at an adult level

B. It can demonstrate that voluntary motor control has fully matured

C. It can show that prenatal circulation still depends on the placenta

D. It can indicate a possible problem in the nervous system

Answer: (D)

Explanation

Newborn reflexes are automatic responses, and abnormal absence, asymmetry or strength may signal a nervous system problem. These reflexes do not demonstrate mature voluntary control, which develops later.

19. An infant gains control of the head before controlling the feet and hands before controlling the fingers. Which principle does this pattern demonstrate?

A. Motor development advances randomly because body regions mature independently

B. Motor development proceeds from head to foot and from the body centre outward

C. Motor development proceeds from the feet to the head and from the fingers inward

D. Motor development begins with finger control and progresses toward the shoulders

Answer: (B)

Explanation

Motor development generally follows a head-to-foot direction and a centre-to-outward direction. The pattern described reflects both principles rather than a progression beginning at the extremities.

20. How do synaptogenesis, synaptic pruning and myelination contribute to postnatal neural development?

A. They create connections, remove unused connections and speed nerve-signal transmission

B. They control digestion, regulate body temperature and establish newborn reflexes

C. They produce chromosomes, divide fertilised eggs and determine the prenatal periods

D. They remove all early connections, create muscle fibres and slow neural communication

Answer: (A)

Explanation

Synaptogenesis adds many neural connections, pruning removes unused ones, and myelination increases the speed of nerve-signal transmission. These processes describe neural development rather than digestion, chromosome formation or prenatal staging.

21. Which statement best describes the development of infant senses at birth?

A. Hearing is the least developed sense, while vision functions at an adult level from birth

B. Vision is the least developed sense, while hearing, touch, smell and taste already function meaningfully

C. Touch and smell are absent at birth, while vision develops fully through early feeding

D. All senses are equally mature because sensory development finishes before birth

Answer: (B)

Explanation

Vision is relatively immature at birth, whereas hearing, touch, smell and taste are functional to important degrees. Hearing can function before birth, so it is not the least developed sense at birth.

22. Which sleep arrangement is recommended to reduce an infant’s risk of sudden infant death syndrome?

A. Place the infant on the back on a firm surface without loose bedding

B. Place the infant on the side surrounded by loose pillows for support

C. Place the infant on the back on a soft surface covered with loose bedding

D. Place the infant on the stomach on a soft surface with padded blankets

Answer: (A)

Explanation

Back sleeping on a firm surface without loose bedding reduces the risk of sudden infant death syndrome. Soft surfaces and loose bedding can create additional hazards rather than providing safer support.

23. What can severe early neglect do to development, and how may later enriched care affect those outcomes?

A. It produces fixed developmental outcomes because later caregiving has little influence on recovery

B. It can improve emotional regulation by reducing stimulation, while adoption generally worsens development

C. It can affect physical growth but leaves attachment and thinking unchanged despite later experiences

D. It can impair growth, regulation, attachment and thinking, while later enriched care may reverse many effects

Answer: (D)

Explanation

Severe early neglect can impair growth, emotional regulation, attachment and thinking, while enriched care or later adoption can reverse many, though not necessarily all, effects. The possibility of recovery means neglect does not make every developmental outcome fixed.

24. What does Piaget mean by assimilation in cognitive development?

A. Learning through guidance from a more capable person

B. Changing an existing mental scheme to fit new information

C. Removing support as a child becomes more capable

D. Fitting a new experience into an existing mental scheme

Answer: (D)

Explanation

Assimilation incorporates a new experience into a mental scheme that is already present. Accommodation is the related process that changes the scheme itself, making it the most plausible alternative.

25. A child calls a whale a fish, then revises the category after learning that whales are mammals. Which Piagetian process is illustrated by revising the category?

A. Accommodation of an existing mental scheme

B. Movement into the formal operational stage

C. Assimilation into an existing mental scheme

D. Scaffolding from a more capable person

Answer: (A)

Explanation

Accommodation occurs when new information requires changing an existing mental scheme, as in revising the category for whales. Assimilation would involve interpreting the whale within the existing fish scheme without changing it.

26. Which sequence correctly orders Piaget's four stages of cognitive development?

A. Formal operational, concrete operational, preoperational, sensorimotor

B. Preoperational, sensorimotor, formal operational, concrete operational

C. Sensorimotor, concrete operational, preoperational, formal operational

D. Sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational

Answer: (D)

Explanation

Piaget proposed the sequence sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational. The other sequences place stages in an order that does not match the developmental progression.

27. A child can solve a puzzle with an adult's hints but cannot solve it independently. What does this difference represent in Vygotsky's theory?

A. The zone of proximal development

B. Assimilation of a new experience

C. A stable temperament style

D. The sensorimotor stage

Answer: (A)

Explanation

The zone of proximal development is the gap between what a child can do alone and what the child can accomplish with guidance from a more capable person. The sensorimotor stage describes a period of cognitive development rather than this performance gap.

28. Which combination best characterizes Autism Spectrum Disorder?

A. High activity levels alongside rapidly changing emotional reactions

B. Separation distress alongside a strong preference for caregiver contact

C. Temporary language delays alongside unusually advanced social interaction

D. Persistent social-communication difficulties alongside restricted or repetitive behaviours

Answer: (D)

Explanation

Autism Spectrum Disorder involves lasting difficulties in social communication and interaction together with restricted or repetitive behaviours or interests that affect daily functioning. The other combinations describe different developmental or behavioural features without defining ASD.

29. Which behaviour pattern is most consistent with common features of Autism Spectrum Disorder?

A. Brief separation distress, quick reunion comfort, and a return to exploration

B. Rapid friendship formation, flexible routines, and frequent conversational turn-taking

C. Limited reciprocal conversation, repetitive movements, and a strong need for sameness

D. Predictable emotional reactions, easy adjustment, and low sensitivity to novelty

Answer: (C)

Explanation

Common ASD features include difficulty with reciprocal conversation, repetitive movements, and a strong need for sameness, along with other social and sensory differences. Quick comfort at reunion and returning to exploration are features associated with secure attachment instead.

30. What conclusion is supported by high-quality research concerning vaccines and autism?

A. The evidence remains evenly divided between causal and noncausal explanations

B. Research has found no causal link between vaccines and autism

C. The retracted 1998 study established a lasting causal explanation

D. Research has confirmed vaccines as a major cause of autism

Answer: (B)

Explanation

High-quality research has found no causal link between vaccines and autism, and the original study claiming such a link was fraudulent and retracted. The retracted claim is therefore not reliable evidence of causation.

31. What is temperament in infancy?

A. A learned set of moral rules acquired during middle childhood

B. A temporary response caused by a particular caregiver interaction

C. A deliberate strategy for managing social relationships

D. A fairly stable style of emotional reaction and self-regulation

Answer: (D)

Explanation

Temperament is a baby's naturally occurring and fairly stable style of emotional reaction and self-regulation that contributes to later personality. It is not a deliberate strategy or merely a temporary response to one interaction.

32. How does an easy temperament differ from a slow-to-warm-up temperament?

A. An easy baby generally adjusts quickly, whereas a slow-to-warm-up baby needs more time

B. An easy baby reacts intensely, whereas a slow-to-warm-up baby adjusts immediately

C. An easy baby avoids caregivers, whereas a slow-to-warm-up baby seeks constant contact

D. An easy baby has unpredictable routines, whereas a slow-to-warm-up baby has highly reactive routines

Answer: (A)

Explanation

An easy baby generally adjusts quickly to situations, while a slow-to-warm-up baby is usually calm but needs more time to adapt to novelty. The other choices reverse or misrepresent the differences in adjustment and reactivity.

33. Which reunion behaviour most strongly indicates secure attachment?

A. Avoiding close contact and showing little response to reunion

B. Ignoring the caregiver while continuing a familiar activity

C. Remaining distressed and resisting comfort after the caregiver returns

D. Seeking comfort, calming quickly, and returning to exploration

Answer: (D)

Explanation

Secure attachment is shown when a child uses the caregiver as a safe base, seeks comfort after separation, calms quickly, and resumes exploration. Avoiding close contact at reunion is more consistent with avoidant attachment than secure attachment.

34. Which Eriksonian conflict is associated with preschool development?

A. Industry versus inferiority

B. Autonomy versus shame and doubt

C. Initiative versus guilt

D. Trust versus mistrust

Answer: (C)

Explanation

Erikson associated the preschool period with initiative versus guilt. Trust versus mistrust belongs to infancy, autonomy versus shame and doubt to toddlerhood, and industry versus inferiority to middle childhood.

35. In Gibson and Walk's visual cliff study, what proportion of babies aged six to fourteen months refused to crawl across the deep-looking side?

A. About 81 percent

B. About 16 percent

C. About 34 percent

D. About 52 percent

Answer: (A)

Explanation

About 81 percent of the babies refused to cross the deep-looking side, even though the glass made the apparatus physically safe. The result showed that the babies responded to the apparent depth rather than to an actual drop.

36. What do visual-cliff findings suggest about the relationship between depth perception and crawling behavior?

A. Babies crawl across apparent drops when caregivers are nearby because depth perception is absent.

B. Babies may perceive depth early, but experience and social cues influence cautious movement.

C. Babies acquire depth perception after crawling, regardless of social cues from caregivers.

D. Babies' movement decisions depend on visual depth perception without influence from experience.

Answer: (B)

Explanation

The findings indicate that depth perception can emerge early, while crawling experience and caregiver social referencing affect whether infants act on that perception. This differs from the idea that perception develops only after crawling begins.

37. How did Harlow's experiment investigate the attachment behavior of infant rhesus monkeys?

A. It measured how quickly monkeys learned to cross a visual cliff toward a feeding surrogate.

B. It compared clinging and fear responses toward wire and cloth surrogates while varying the milk source.

C. It compared feeding rates in groups of monkeys raised with different numbers of adult monkeys.

D. It observed whether monkeys preferred familiar human caregivers over unfamiliar human caregivers.

Answer: (B)

Explanation

Harlow raised monkeys with wire and cloth surrogates, varied which surrogate supplied milk, and measured clinging and responses to fear or separation. The experiment therefore examined attachment behavior rather than visual depth learning or human-caregiver preference.

38. What distinction did Harlow's surrogate-mother experiment make about the basis of attachment?

A. Attachment developed primarily through visual familiarity with the feeding surrogate.

B. Attachment was influenced by contact comfort rather than by food provision alone.

C. Attachment depended mainly on separation from other infant monkeys during development.

D. Attachment was determined by food provision even when physical contact was unpleasant.

Answer: (B)

Explanation

The experiment separated the effects of milk from the effects of a warm, soft surface, showing that contact comfort strongly influenced attachment. Food provision alone did not explain which surrogate the monkeys preferred.

39. When frightened, how did the infant monkeys generally respond to the soft cloth surrogate?

A. They moved toward the wire surrogate because she had provided milk.

B. They approached the cloth surrogate briefly before returning to the wire surrogate.

C. They clung to the cloth surrogate and used her as a safe base.

D. They avoided both surrogates and remained near the experimental enclosure.

Answer: (C)

Explanation

The monkeys spent much more time clinging to the soft cloth surrogate, used her as a safe base, and sought her when frightened. This pattern occurred regardless of which surrogate provided milk.

40. What broader conclusion about attachment follows from Harlow's findings and later research?

A. Contact comfort explains healthy attachment without requiring social interaction or responsive caregiving.

B. Attachment develops through strict discipline because predictable control creates emotional security.

C. Contact comfort contributes to attachment, while healthy attachment also requires sensitive and consistent caregiving.

D. Food provision remains the strongest basis of attachment when caregivers provide regular nourishment.

Answer: (C)

Explanation

Harlow's work established contact comfort as an important contributor, while later research emphasized sensitivity, consistency and normal social interaction. Thus, physical comfort is important but does not by itself account for healthy attachment.

41. Which age ranges are associated with youth in India's National Youth Policy of 2014 and adolescence in the United Nations definition?

A. Youth is ages 10–19, whereas adolescence is ages 15–29.

B. Youth is ages 15–24, whereas adolescence is ages 12– eighteen.

C. Youth is ages 15–29, whereas adolescence is ages 10–19.

D. Youth is ages 18–29, whereas adolescence is ages 10– twenty-four.

Answer: (C)

Explanation

India's National Youth Policy of 2014 defines youth as people aged 15–29, while the United Nations defines adolescence as ages 10–19. The two categories therefore overlap but are not identical.

42. Why can adolescent experiences in India differ substantially across social groups?

A. Class, caste, region, religion and education shape access to schooling, careers and technology.

B. Adolescents across India receive similar opportunities because national schooling removes social differences.

C. Family size primarily determines educational and career opportunities across Indian adolescent groups.

D. Regional climate is the main factor determining whether adolescents receive coaching and internet access.

Answer: (A)

Explanation

Adolescent experiences vary with class, caste, region, religion and education, affecting access to schooling, coaching, career choices and the internet. Wealthier urban adolescents generally have more of these opportunities than poorer or rural adolescents.

43. What does the idea of a related-autonomous self describe among many Indian adolescents?

A. A combination of personal independence with continuing family bonds, duties and respect for parents.

B. A rejection of family obligations in favor of complete individual decision-making during adolescence.

C. A strong dependence on parents that prevents adolescents from developing personal wishes or autonomy.

D. A balance between independence and family ties created primarily through peer approval and school competition.

Answer: (A)

Explanation

A related-autonomous self combines growing independence and personal wishes with continuing family relationships, duties and respect for parents. It differs from both complete individual independence and dependence that leaves no room for autonomy.

44. Which combination best reflects policy priorities for Indian adolescents?

A. Academic testing, urban employment, internet expansion, competitive coaching and reduced family involvement.

B. Nutrition programs, school discipline, career selection, family separation and treatment for physical illness.

C. Education, health and nutrition, girls' needs, mental-health support and constructive family engagement.

D. Health services, sports facilities, examination preparation, parental control and neighborhood surveillance.

Answer: (C)

Explanation

Policy should address education, health and nutrition, with particular attention to girls, as well as mental-health support and constructive family engagement. The alternatives omit key priorities or replace supportive engagement with control or separation.

45. Which description best captures the meaning of ageing?

A. A sudden process caused by illness that reduces physical functioning

B. A gradual process involving time-related physical and biological changes

C. A social transition involving withdrawal from work and family life

D. A fixed condition beginning at retirement and ending with dependency

Answer: (B)

Explanation

Ageing refers to gradual physical and biological changes associated with time, although it can also include positive maturation. Maturation is the more specific term for gaining desirable qualities over time, not the full definition of ageing.

46. An older adult develops reduced mobility after a serious injury. How should this change be classified?

A. As late adulthood defined by a chronological threshold

B. As primary ageing following the body's inherited timeline

C. As secondary ageing caused by an external factor

D. As maturation resulting from accumulated life experience

Answer: (C)

Explanation

Secondary ageing results from external influences such as injury or disease and is not automatically inevitable. Primary ageing refers to natural, inherited changes that follow the body's normal timeline.

47. Which age threshold is commonly used by the United Nations to define older adulthood?

A. Sixty years and above

B. Seventy years and above

C. Sixty-two years and above

D. Sixty-five years and above

Answer: (A)

Explanation

The United Nations commonly uses sixty years and above to define older adulthood. Many psychologists in developed countries instead use sixty-five years and above, making that threshold a plausible alternative.

48. How did rising life expectancy contribute to India's demographic change?

A. It reduced the proportion of people reaching retirement age

B. It shifted most population growth toward childhood groups

C. It decreased elderly population growth through later marriage

D. It increased the number of people surviving into older age

Answer: (D)

Explanation

Average life expectancy in India rose from roughly forty-one years in 1951 to sixty-nine years by 2008, substantially increasing the number of people surviving to older ages. The change therefore supported elderly population growth rather than reducing it.

49. Why are more older parents in India becoming separated from familiar communities?

A. Older adults are choosing independent living because family support has expanded

B. Improved healthcare is moving older adults away from their children

C. Migration and social change are weakening traditional joint-family support

D. Retirement policies are replacing family relationships with institutional care

Answer: (C)

Explanation

Urbanisation, industrialisation, globalisation, women's workforce participation and job migration have weakened the traditional joint-family system. These changes can separate older parents from children, grandchildren and familiar community networks.

50. Which pattern describes financial dependence among older adults in India?

A. It affected about sixty percent of both older women and older men

B. It affected about one-quarter of older women and one-half of older men

C. It affected about seventy-six percent of older women and forty-two percent of older men

D. It affected about forty-two percent of older women and seventy-six percent of older men

Answer: (C)

Explanation

About seventy-six percent of older women and forty-two percent of older men relied financially on family members. Reversing these percentages incorrectly assigns the higher level of dependence to older men.

51. Which condition was reported by around forty-two percent of elderly people in relation to loneliness and neglect?

A. Financial independence supported by stable employment

B. Digital confidence resulting from frequent technology use

C. Physical disability caused by inherited biological ageing

D. Psychosocial problems associated with loneliness and neglect

Answer: (D)

Explanation

Around forty-two percent of elderly people reported psychosocial problems connected with loneliness and neglect. Family breakdown, low socioeconomic status and social isolation were also associated with higher psychiatric illness, rather than financial independence or digital confidence.

52. Which combination would best support an ageing population in India?

A. Higher institutional control, limited social interaction and fewer caregiver resources

B. Expanded employment competition, reduced community contact and fewer family services

C. Age-friendly infrastructure, health services, psychosocial support and caregiver assistance

D. Residential separation, technological screening and reduced access to healthcare

Answer: (C)

Explanation

India's ageing population requires age-friendly infrastructure, psychosocial support, health services, community interaction and assistance for family caregivers. Reducing social contact or healthcare access would conflict with these needs and could intensify vulnerability.