Prawn and Crab Production Management Practice Quiz (70 questions)

1. Which situation is an example of an import into Fiji?

A. Fiji purchases machinery produced in another country

B. Fiji sells ginger grown locally to an overseas buyer

C. Fiji transports fish between two local islands

D. Fiji produces sugar for sale in a domestic market

Answer: (A)

Explanation

An import is a good or service brought into a country from another country, so foreign-produced machinery purchased by Fiji qualifies. Selling locally produced ginger abroad describes an export instead.

2. Which transaction best illustrates an export from Fiji?

A. A Fijian household buys a vehicle manufactured overseas

B. A Fijian retailer purchases Australian milk for local customers

C. A Fijian company sells locally produced taro to a foreign buyer

D. A Fijian port receives fertilizer shipped from another country

Answer: (C)

Explanation

An export is produced in the home country and sold to another market, which describes locally produced taro sold abroad. The other transactions involve goods entering Fiji and therefore represent imports.

3. Which group contains agricultural or fisheries products identified as major Fijian exports?

A. Coffee, wheat, beef and cotton

B. Corn, soybeans, apples and wool

C. Sugar, fish, coconuts and ginger

D. Rice, tea, rubber and cocoa

Answer: (C)

Explanation

Fiji’s major agricultural and fisheries exports include sugar, fish, coconuts and ginger, among other listed commodities. The other groups contain products not identified as Fiji’s major agricultural or fisheries exports in this material.

4. What trade result did Fiji record in the agriculture crop and livestock sub-sector in 2015?

A. A trade deficit of FJD$316 million

B. A balanced trade position with no deficit

C. A trade deficit of FJD$31.6 million

D. A trade surplus of FJD$316 million

Answer: (A)

Explanation

Fiji recorded a trade deficit of FJD$316 million in this sub-sector during 2015. A surplus, a smaller deficit, and a balanced position do not match the reported result.

5. What is the main purpose of an import substitution policy?

A. To remove domestic producers from international markets

B. To encourage consumers to purchase more imported products

C. To replace foreign imports with domestic production

D. To increase reliance on foreign suppliers for essential goods

Answer: (C)

Explanation

Import substitution seeks to replace foreign imports with domestic production and thereby reduce foreign dependency. Increasing reliance on overseas supply describes import dependence rather than import substitution.

6. A government introduces a single digital form and common data standards for customs declarations across several countries; what trade concept does this illustrate?

A. Import substitution through expanded domestic manufacturing

B. Trade facilitation through simplified and harmonised procedures

C. Export dependence through increased foreign purchasing

D. Trade restriction through additional border requirements

Answer: (B)

Explanation

Trade facilitation simplifies and harmonises procedures for collecting, presenting, communicating and processing trade data. Adding restrictive requirements would represent a trade barrier rather than facilitation.

7. Which institution serves as Fiji’s first line of defence for controlling imported and exported goods?

A. The agricultural export promotion programme

B. The national agricultural marketing office

C. The domestic freight and logistics association

D. The Fiji Biosecurity Services Division

Answer: (D)

Explanation

The Fiji Biosecurity Services Division safeguards Fiji by helping control traded goods, improve market access and remove trade barriers. The other entities do not have the stated first-line biosecurity role.

8. Which strategy is most directly aligned with improving Fiji’s agricultural trade?

A. Reduce technical support while limiting stakeholder participation

B. Focus on low-value crops and postpone production scheduling

C. Depend on imported supplies while restricting domestic cultivation

D. Increase local production while improving market access and trade facilitation

Answer: (D)

Explanation

Improving trade involves increasing local production, using crop scheduling, developing high-value crops, supporting organic production, engaging stakeholders and improving market access. The alternatives remove or reverse several of these recommended measures.

9. Which description best defines a green economy?

A. An economy that expands production without considering ecological damage

B. An economy that prioritizes resource extraction over long-term sustainability

C. An economy that protects nature by abandoning economic development

D. An economy that pursues sustainable development while reducing environmental risks

Answer: (D)

Explanation

A green economy reduces environmental risks and ecological scarcities while pursuing sustainable development without degrading the environment. Conventional expansion that ignores ecological damage does not meet this definition.

10. Which set correctly identifies the three pillars of green development?

A. Cultural, legal and demographic

B. Agricultural, commercial and political

C. Industrial, financial and technological

D. Economic, environmental and social

Answer: (D)

Explanation

The three pillars are economic, environmental and social, representing growth, resource protection, and livelihoods and equality. The other sets contain related policy areas but are not the stated pillars.

11. A national programme expands clean energy, supports decent employment and promotes responsible production; which green-economy benefits does it demonstrate?

A. Lower employment, restricted energy access and less sustainable production

B. Greater pollution, excessive consumption and reduced climate action

C. Clean energy, decent work and responsible production

D. Higher inequality, resource depletion and weaker livelihoods

Answer: (C)

Explanation

Clean energy, decent work and responsible production are all recognized benefits of a green economy. The other combinations describe outcomes that conflict with the listed environmental and social benefits.

12. Which worker has a green job under the stated definition?

A. A salesperson who promotes products without sustainability responsibilities

B. A clerk whose duties involve routine administrative filing

C. A technician who installs and maintains renewable-energy systems

D. A driver transporting conventional fuel to retail stations

Answer: (C)

Explanation

A green job is employment or self-employment that genuinely contributes to a more sustainable world, which renewable-energy installation and maintenance does. The other roles are not described as contributing directly to sustainability.

13. What distinguishes an internal combustion engine from an external combustion engine?

A. Fuel is cooled inside the engine cylinder

B. Fuel is stored inside the engine cylinder

C. Fuel burns outside the engine cylinder

D. Fuel burns inside the engine cylinder

Answer: (D)

Explanation

An internal combustion engine produces power by burning fuel inside its cylinder. An external combustion engine burns fuel outside the cylinder and transfers heat to the working fluid.

14. Which classification correctly matches each engine characteristic?

A. Stroke number describes cycle strokes, while ignition type describes fuel ignition

B. Stroke number describes cooling method, while ignition type describes engine size

C. Stroke number describes fuel type, while ignition type describes cycle strokes

D. Stroke number describes cylinder layout, while ignition type describes crankshaft speed

Answer: (A)

Explanation

Two-stroke and four-stroke identify the number of strokes in the cycle, whereas spark-ignition and compression-ignition identify how the fuel is ignited. These are separate classification systems.

15. How many crankshaft revolutions are required for one complete four-stroke spark-ignition cycle?

A. One revolution, or 360°

B. Two revolutions, or 720°

C. Three revolutions, or 1,080°

D. Four revolutions, or 1,440°

Answer: (B)

Explanation

A four-stroke spark-ignition cycle includes intake, compression, power, and exhaust, requiring two crankshaft revolutions, equal to 720°. One revolution describes 360°, not the complete cycle.

16. How does ignition occur in a spark-ignition engine compared with a compression-ignition engine?

A. Compressed hot air ignites petrol-air mixture, while a spark plug ignites injected diesel

B. A spark plug ignites petrol-air mixture, while compressed hot air ignites injected diesel

C. Injected diesel ignites the petrol-air mixture, while a spark plug heats compressed air

D. A spark plug ignites diesel directly, while compressed hot air ignites petrol vapour

Answer: (B)

Explanation

Spark-ignition engines use a spark plug to ignite a petrol and air mixture, while compression-ignition engines use compressed hot air to ignite diesel sprayed by injectors. The ignition method and fuel mixture differ between the two engine types.

17. Which three hazards are the main enemies from which farm machines must be protected?

A. Noise, vibration, and moisture

B. Wear, dirt, and heat

C. Fuel, oil, and electricity

D. Rust, pressure, and smoke

Answer: (B)

Explanation

The principal hazards are wear caused by mechanical action, dirt caused by contamination, and heat caused by excessive temperature. The other combinations include operating conditions or machine materials rather than the three designated enemies.

18. Which maintenance component pairing correctly matches each problem with its control?

A. Lubricants remove heat, filters store oil, and cooling systems prevent leaks

B. Lubricants clean fuel, filters cool bearings, and cooling systems reduce friction

C. Lubricants reduce friction, filters block dirt, and cooling systems remove heat

D. Lubricants block dirt, filters reduce friction, and cooling systems store fuel

Answer: (C)

Explanation

Lubricants and bearings reduce friction and wear, filters keep dirt out, and cooling systems prevent damage from excessive heat. The other pairings assign each maintenance device to the wrong problem.

19. How does a water-cooled engine remove heat differently from an air-cooled engine?

A. Coolant circulates through water jackets, while air flows over fins or hot surfaces

B. Oil circulates through water jackets, while fuel flows over hot surfaces

C. Air circulates through water jackets, while coolant flows over exposed fins

D. Coolant sprays the cylinder externally, while air passes through the fuel tank

Answer: (A)

Explanation

Water-cooled engines circulate coolant through water jackets, whereas air-cooled engines blow air over fins or other hot surfaces. Their cooling media and heat-transfer paths are therefore different.

20. What does a farm profit and loss statement measure?

A. Assets and liabilities at a specific point in time

B. Revenues and expenses over an accounting period

C. Equipment values and debts beyond one accounting year

D. Cash deposits and withdrawals on a single day

Answer: (B)

Explanation

A profit and loss statement measures revenues and expenses over a period, commonly one year, and shows the resulting profit or loss. A balance sheet instead presents assets, liabilities, and equity at a specific time.

21. A farm earns total income of $180,000 and incurs total expenses of $125,000. What is its profit?

A. $\text{Profit} = \$180{,}000$

B. $\text{Profit} = \$125{,}000$

C. $\text{Profit} = \$55{,}000$

D. $\text{Profit} = \$305{,}000$

Answer: (C)

Explanation

Profit is calculated by subtracting total expenses from total income: $\text{Profit} = \$180{,}000 - \$125{,}000 = \$55{,}000$. The total income and total expenses are not themselves the profit.

22. What information does a farm balance sheet present?

A. Revenues, expenses, and profit across an accounting period

B. Fuel use, repair costs, and output during a production cycle

C. Assets, liabilities, and owner’s equity at a specific point in time

D. Purchase price, salvage value, and useful life of one asset

Answer: (C)

Explanation

A balance sheet reports the farm’s financial position at a particular time by listing assets, liabilities, and owner’s equity. Revenues and expenses over a period belong to a profit and loss statement.

23. A machine costs $50,000, has a salvage value of $10,000, and a useful life of 8 years. What is its annual straight-line depreciation?

A. $\$7{,}500$

B. $\$6{,}250$

C. $\$5{,}000$

D. $\$40{,}000$

Answer: (C)

Explanation

Straight-line depreciation is calculated as $\frac{\$50{,}000 - \$10{,}000}{8} = \$5{,}000$ per year. Dividing the purchase price without subtracting salvage value would overstate the annual depreciation.

24. Which description best defines a farm inventory?

A. A summary of farm purchases and sales prepared for a particular marketing season

B. A forecast of expected farm income and expenses for several accounting periods

C. A record of workers, wages, and employment changes maintained throughout the year

D. A complete listing of farm stock, resources, and goods on hand, usually updated annually

Answer: (D)

Explanation

An inventory lists stock on hand, work in progress, raw materials, finished goods, and other farm resources, and it is commonly updated annually. A labour record instead documents workers and employment information.

25. A farmer hires workers to harvest crops for three weeks and employs another group throughout the year. How should these two groups be classified?

A. The harvest workers are permanent labour, and the year-round workers are hired labour

B. The harvest workers are family labour, and the year-round workers are hired labour

C. The harvest workers are hired labour, and the year-round workers are permanent labour

D. The harvest workers are permanent labour, and the year-round workers are family labour

Answer: (C)

Explanation

Hired labour is engaged for particular work, such as a short harvest, while permanent labour consists of full-time farm workers. Family labour refers to family members working on the farm.

26. Which item would be appropriate to include in a farm inventory?

A. Stored livestock feed held for future use

B. A bank’s schedule of planned loan repayments

C. A supplier’s forecast of next season’s prices

D. A worker’s record of annual leave taken

Answer: (A)

Explanation

Stored stock feed is a farm resource held on hand and is therefore included in an inventory. Leave records, price forecasts, and loan schedules serve different administrative or planning purposes.

27. How can accurate inventory records assist a farmer at the end of the financial year?

A. They provide information for preparing balance sheets and income tax filings

B. They replace the need to record wages and employment benefits

C. They guarantee that farm products will receive favorable market prices

D. They determine which workers qualify for permanent employment

Answer: (A)

Explanation

Accurate inventories support year-end balance sheets and income tax filing, as well as accrual income statements and farm planning. They do not replace labour records or guarantee market outcomes.

28. What does a cash flow plan forecast?

A. The quantity of machinery and livestock currently held on a farm

B. The nutrient concentrations and acidity levels of farm soil

C. The ownership structure and staffing plan of a farm business

D. Cash inflows and outflows over several future periods

Answer: (D)

Explanation

A cash flow plan is a strategic document forecasting cash entering and leaving a business over several periods. A business plan addresses broader goals, while inventories and soil tests measure different aspects of farm management.

29. Which sequence best represents the development of a cash flow plan?

A. Value farm assets, estimate depreciation, calculate tax, then prepare an inventory

B. Test the soil, identify nutrient deficiencies, apply fertilizer, then record crop yields

C. Identify capital, estimate sales and timing, calculate expenses, then transfer the data into the plan

D. List employees, classify their contracts, calculate wages, then transfer the data into the plan

Answer: (C)

Explanation

Developing a cash flow plan involves identifying start-up capital and its sources, estimating sales and their timing, calculating monthly expenses, and entering the information into the plan. The other sequences describe labour, soil, or asset-management activities.

30. A farmer wants to determine whether the business can meet upcoming loan payments. Which tool is most directly useful?

A. A marketing plan describing customers and promotional activities

B. A labour record showing staff attendance and employment history

C. A cash flow plan showing current and projected cash positions

D. An inventory listing machinery, livestock, and stored feed

Answer: (C)

Explanation

A cash flow plan helps assess loan repayment capacity by showing current and future cash positions. Labour records, inventories, and marketing plans provide useful information but do not directly forecast available cash for repayments.

31. Which statement best distinguishes a business plan from a cash flow plan?

A. A business plan records workers and benefits, while a cash flow plan records farm machinery and livestock

B. A business plan explains goals and how they will be achieved, while a cash flow plan projects cash movements

C. A business plan reports past sales, while a cash flow plan describes the legal form of the business

D. A business plan lists soil nutrients, while a cash flow plan recommends fertilizer applications

Answer: (B)

Explanation

A business plan is a forward-looking decision-making document covering goals, objectives, and their implementation, whereas a cash flow plan focuses on projected cash inflows and outflows. The other distinctions assign unrelated functions to the two plans.

32. Which group consists of soil chemical properties?

A. Livestock number, labour supply, machinery value, sales, taxes, and loan balance

B. Texture, slope, colour, drainage, root depth, and field accessibility

C. Nutrients, water, air, pH, cation exchange capacity, and buffer capacity

D. Seed rate, planting date, crop spacing, yield, harvest time, and storage life

Answer: (C)

Explanation

Soil chemical properties include nutrients, water, air, pH, cation exchange capacity, and buffer capacity. The other groups combine physical, production, or business-management characteristics rather than chemical properties.

33. What is the main difference between macronutrients and micronutrients?

A. Macronutrients move within plants, whereas micronutrients remain fixed in the soil

B. Macronutrients are measured through field trials, whereas micronutrients are measured through plant analysis

C. Macronutrients occur in older leaves, whereas micronutrients occur in younger leaves during deficiency

D. Macronutrients are needed in relatively large amounts, whereas micronutrients are needed in very small amounts

Answer: (D)

Explanation

Plants require macronutrients in relatively large amounts and micronutrients in very small amounts. Leaf location concerns nutrient mobility, while testing methods can be used for diagnosing different nutrient problems.

34. A crop shows yellowing first in its older leaves. Which interpretation is most consistent with nutrient mobility?

A. The crop may have adequate nutrients because leaf symptoms do not indicate mobility

B. The crop may have a deficiency of a mobile nutrient such as nitrogen

C. The crop may have excessive boron because micronutrients affect older leaves first

D. The crop may have a deficiency of an immobile nutrient such as calcium

Answer: (B)

Explanation

Deficiencies of mobile nutrients such as nitrogen commonly appear first in older leaves because nutrients can be relocated within the plant. Immobile nutrient deficiencies, such as calcium deficiency, tend to appear first in younger leaves.

35. Which combination provides recognized methods for evaluating soil fertility?

A. Observing deficiency symptoms, testing soil, analyzing plants, and conducting biological tests

B. Counting farm workers, reviewing wages, checking attendance, and recording leave

C. Listing livestock, valuing machinery, counting feed, and recording stored seed

D. Estimating sales, calculating expenses, forecasting cash, and assessing loan capacity

Answer: (A)

Explanation

Soil fertility evaluation uses deficiency-symptom observation, soil testing, plant analysis, and biological techniques such as missing-element tests and field trials. The other combinations address labour, cash planning, or inventory management.

36. What does a biological soil fertility test evaluate after fertilizer is applied?

A. Plant growth performance

B. Microbial population density

C. Soil texture and pore volume

D. Nutrient concentration in plant tissue

Answer: (A)

Explanation

Biological testing evaluates how plants grow in response to fertilizer treatments, providing an overall measure of soil fertility. Measuring nutrient concentration in plant tissue describes plant analysis rather than biological soil testing.

37. Why are fertilizer treatments randomly assigned to replicated field plots?

A. To make field experiments faster by using very small soil samples

B. To ensure every plot receives identical soil and management conditions

C. To improve reliability by accounting for soil and management variation

D. To replace fertilizer treatments with measurements of plant tissue nutrients

Answer: (C)

Explanation

Randomized replicated plots reduce the influence of variation in soil and management, making treatment comparisons more reliable. Small soil quantities and rapid experiments are characteristic of laboratory or greenhouse testing, not field plot design.

38. Why can Azotobacter species be used in microorganism biological tests of soil fertility?

A. They grow without requiring phosphorus, potassium, or lime

B. They directly measure nutrient concentrations in plant tissues

C. They require more nutrients than crops under every soil condition

D. Their nutrient requirements resemble those of crop plants

Answer: (D)

Explanation

Microorganism tests rely on organisms whose nutrient requirements are similar to those of crops, although the amounts needed differ. Azotobacter can therefore help determine lime, phosphorus, and potassium content in soil; it does not perform plant tissue analysis.

39. What does soil water-holding capacity describe?

A. The moisture level at which plants permanently lose turgidity

B. The portion of retained water that plant roots can absorb

C. The amount of water soil can retain according to its pore capacity

D. The speed at which water drains through large soil pores

Answer: (C)

Explanation

Water-holding capacity refers to the soil’s ability to retain water as determined by its pore capacity. Available water is a narrower concept referring to the portion that plants can absorb.

40. Which type of soil water is generally available to plants because it is held in small capillary pores?

A. Surface runoff water

B. Cohesion water

C. Gravitational water

D. Adhesion water

Answer: (B)

Explanation

Cohesion water is retained in small capillary pores and can generally be absorbed by plants. Adhesion water is held too tightly around particles, while gravitational water moves rapidly through macropores and is generally unavailable.

41. Which condition distinguishes field capacity from the permanent wilting point?

A. Field capacity follows drainage after saturation, whereas permanent wilting point prevents recovery of plant turgidity

B. Field capacity describes unavailable adhesion water, whereas permanent wilting point describes available cohesion water

C. Field capacity occurs before saturation, whereas permanent wilting point represents the soil’s maximum water content

D. Field capacity marks irreversible wilting, whereas permanent wilting point follows rapid gravitational drainage

Answer: (A)

Explanation

Field capacity is the water remaining 24–48 hours after saturation and gravitational drainage, whereas the permanent wilting point is the minimum moisture level at which plants cannot recover their turgidity. The other choices reverse or misidentify these moisture conditions.

42. A soil sample weighs 30 grams when moist and 24 grams when dry. What is its water content by weight?

A. $0.25$

B. $0.20$

C. $6.00$

D. $0.80$

Answer: (A)

Explanation

Using the formula, water content is $\frac{30-24}{24}=\frac{6}{24}=0.25$. Dividing by the moist weight would produce $0.20$, but the calculation uses dry weight as the denominator.

43. How is soil pH defined?

A. The percentage of exchangeable calcium relative to total soil mass

B. The ratio of hydroxide ions to clay particles in a soil sample

C. The concentration of organic matter dissolved in soil water

D. The negative logarithm of hydrogen ion activity in a solution

Answer: (D)

Explanation

Soil pH is defined as the negative logarithm of hydrogen ion activity in solution. It is not a direct measure of calcium, organic matter, or the ratio between hydroxide ions and clay particles.

44. Which practice can increase soil acidity?

A. Increasing the soil’s capacity to retain basic nutrient cations

B. Reducing leaching and limiting oxidation of nitrogen compounds

C. Adding materials that neutralize acidity and raise soil pH

D. Applying excess sulfur or ammonium fertilizers

Answer: (D)

Explanation

Excess sulfur or ammonium fertilizer can increase soil acidity, along with processes such as leaching and oxidation of nitrogen and sulfur. Liming and other neutralizing practices instead counteract acidity rather than promote it.

45. What is a likely consequence of low soil pH for nutrient availability and metal toxicity?

A. Greater availability of nitrogen, sulfur, and molybdenum with reduced aluminium solubility

B. Reduced availability of nitrogen, sulfur, and molybdenum with greater aluminium and manganese toxicity

C. Reduced phosphorus fixation with lower solubility and toxicity of aluminium and manganese

D. Improved availability of all essential nutrients through increased cation exchange capacity

Answer: (B)

Explanation

Low pH restricts nitrogen, sulfur, and molybdenum availability, can make phosphorus unavailable, and increases the solubility and toxicity of aluminium and manganese. It therefore does not improve the availability of all nutrients or reduce metal toxicity.

46. Why do high-CEC soils generally lose fewer nutrients through leaching than low-CEC sandy soils?

A. They have lower water retention, allowing dissolved nutrients to remain near the surface

B. They contain fewer charged surfaces, so nutrient ions move rapidly with drainage

C. They prevent water from entering pores, which stops nutrient movement through the profile

D. They commonly contain more clay or organic matter that retains water and nutrient cations

Answer: (D)

Explanation

High-CEC soils commonly contain more clay or organic matter, allowing them to retain more water and cations and making them less susceptible to nutrient leaching. Low-CEC sandy soils have fewer exchange sites and generally retain fewer nutrient cations.

47. What is the central purpose of plant breeding?

A. To increase soil nutrients through biological decomposition

B. To classify plants according to their natural habitats

C. To preserve every trait found in wild plant populations

D. To change plant traits to produce desired characteristics

Answer: (D)

Explanation

Plant breeding combines scientific knowledge and practical methods to change plant traits for desirable characteristics. Classifying habitats, preserving all wild traits, and enriching soil are different agricultural or ecological activities.

48. What did Gregor Mendel’s work help explain about plant traits?

A. All traits in a parent plant are expressed equally in its offspring

B. Cross-pollination prevents inherited traits from appearing in offspring

C. Plant traits arise mainly from soil nutrients and growing conditions

D. Dominant and recessive alleles can produce visible traits and pass to offspring

Answer: (D)

Explanation

Mendel explained how dominant and recessive alleles influence visible traits and can be inherited by offspring. Environmental conditions affect plant growth, but they do not replace the genetic inheritance pattern Mendel described.

49. In corn breeding, why were self-pollinated lines later crossed with one another?

A. Crossing prevented the development of stable breeding lines

B. Self-pollination combined unrelated genetic material in each generation

C. Self-pollination directly produced hybrids with maximum vigor

D. Crossing distinct lines produced vigorous hybrid plants

Answer: (D)

Explanation

Repeated self-pollination developed breeding lines, and crossing different lines then combined their genetic material to produce vigorous hybrids. Self-pollination forms the lines rather than performing the final combining step.

50. Which outcome shows how plant breeding can support both food security and environmental protection?

A. Higher yields with reduced pesticide dependence and more efficient resource use

B. More profitable crops achieved through increased chemical inputs

C. Uniform crops that require greater water and nutrient applications

D. Lower yields with greater reliance on pesticides and irrigation

Answer: (A)

Explanation

Plant breeding can improve productivity and yield stability while also reducing pesticide dependence and improving water and nutrient efficiency. The other choices describe increased resource demands or omit the broader benefits of breeding.

51. Which practice is an example of inbreeding?

A. Crossing plants from different species to create a hybrid

B. Introducing unrelated genetic material into a breeding population

C. Selecting unrelated plants from several regions for greater variation

D. Mating close relatives or repeatedly self-pollinating plants

Answer: (D)

Explanation

Inbreeding involves reproduction between close relatives and repeated self-pollination. Introducing unrelated material is outbreeding, while crossing different species is a form of crossbreeding.

52. What distinguishes line breeding from outbreeding?

A. Line breeding crosses different species, whereas outbreeding repeats self-pollination

B. Line breeding introduces unrelated material, whereas outbreeding fixes traits in related generations

C. Line breeding reduces selection, whereas outbreeding preserves a narrowly defined family line

D. Line breeding maintains selected related characteristics, whereas outbreeding introduces unrelated material

Answer: (D)

Explanation

Line breeding uses selected members of successive generations to maintain or fix desirable characteristics, while outbreeding adds unrelated genetic material. The alternatives reverse this distinction or assign the methods to different breeding practices.

53. What is crossbreeding in plants?

A. Breeding plants from different species, races, breeds, or varieties to produce a hybrid

B. Selecting related plants across generations to preserve a fixed characteristic

C. Repeating self-pollination within one genetically uniform plant line

D. Removing flower organs to prevent pollen from reaching the female part

Answer: (A)

Explanation

Crossbreeding combines plants from different species, races, breeds, or varieties to produce a hybrid. Repeated self-pollination describes inbreeding, while selection within related generations describes line breeding.

54. After removing the male organs from a flower, what is the next essential step in an artificial cross?

A. Remove the female part before transferring pollen from the selected parent

B. Place pollen from the selected male parent on the female part and protect the cross

C. Plant the flower in a separate field before allowing fertilization to occur

D. Allow the flower to receive pollen from surrounding plants without protection

Answer: (B)

Explanation

Artificial crossing requires depositing selected pollen on the female part and bagging the cross to prevent contamination. Uncontrolled exposure could introduce unwanted pollen, and removing the female part would prevent the intended fertilization.

55. Which practice best reflects sustainable farming?

A. Replacing farm labor with inputs that increase dependence on scarce resources

B. Maximizing short-term profit while disregarding effects on soil and water

C. Increasing production through intensive chemical use regardless of health concerns

D. Maintaining economic viability while protecting the environment and public health

Answer: (D)

Explanation

Sustainable farming balances economic viability with environmental soundness, public-health protection, and thoughtful use of non-renewable factors. A purely profit-centered approach does not account for these environmental and health responsibilities.

56. Which activity is an example of urban agriculture?

A. Raising livestock in isolated areas without links to nearby communities

B. Managing forests outside cities for timber and wildlife conservation

C. Growing and distributing food for local populations in and around cities

D. Producing crops on remote rural farms for distant international markets

Answer: (C)

Explanation

Urban agriculture includes growing, processing, and distributing food or other products in and around cities for local populations. Rural production and forest management occur outside the urban setting central to this definition.

57. What is the defining aim of permaculture?

A. To maximize harvests through heavy external inputs and simplified cropping systems

B. To design agricultural ecosystems that are sustainable, self-sufficient, and ecologically harmonious

C. To separate food production from surrounding ecological relationships

D. To replace biological processes with synthetic fertilizers and chemical pest control

Answer: (B)

Explanation

Permaculture designs agricultural ecosystems to function sustainably and self-sufficiently through ecological harmony and efficiency. Input-intensive or ecologically disconnected systems do not reflect this design principle.

58. What combination characterizes bio-intensive gardening?

A. Small harvests produced by minimizing plant diversity and organic matter

B. Large land requirements, reduced biodiversity, and intensive soil depletion

C. High yields achieved through synthetic inputs and limited attention to soil health

D. High yields from little land, increased biodiversity, and maintained soil fertility

Answer: (D)

Explanation

Bio-intensive gardening seeks maximum yields from minimum land while increasing biodiversity and maintaining soil fertility. Its method is sustainable and organic, rather than dependent on soil depletion or reduced biological diversity.

59. Which set of factors must be controlled to manage a productive container garden?

A. Plant height, pot shape, air temperature, labels, mulch, and trellises

B. Harvest timing, flower color, fertilizer brands, pruning, storage, and packaging

C. Weeds, pests, diseases, nutrients, sunlight, and water

D. Soil color, wind direction, seeds, tools, spacing, and fencing

Answer: (C)

Explanation

Container garden management involves controlling weeds, pests, diseases, nutrients, sunlight, and water to support healthy growth. The other choices include some relevant gardening concerns but do not represent the stated management set.

60. Which practice directly removes weeds rather than deterring insects in a container garden?

A. Covering the ground with plastic sheets

B. Planting lemon grass around the garden

C. Hand-picking weeds from the containers

D. Placing containers on covered ground

Answer: (C)

Explanation

Hand-picking removes weeds directly from the growing area. Lemon grass and similar repellents help deter insects, while plastic sheets and covered ground reduce exposure to infestation sources.

61. How often should organic vegetable plants in containers be top-dressed with well-composted manure or other composted materials?

A. About every two weeks

B. At the beginning of each growing season

C. About every two months

D. After each individual harvest

Answer: (A)

Explanation

Top-dressing with composted materials about every two weeks maintains plant health and productivity. Less frequent seasonal or post-harvest applications would not follow the stated nutrient-management schedule.

62. A container gardener wants moist soil without harming the roots; what watering practice best fits this goal?

A. Water the vegetables every few days to keep the surface dry

B. Water the vegetables generally once per day

C. Water the vegetables only when flowers begin to fall

D. Water the vegetables several times until the soil is saturated

Answer: (B)

Explanation

Container vegetables generally need watering once per day so the soil stays moist without becoming waterlogged. Saturated soil can deprive roots of oxygen, while insufficient water can cause flowers and leaves to drop.

63. Which crop is classified as a tree crop among the potential crops identified in Fiji?

A. Rourou

B. Gardenia

C. Duruka

D. Mango

Answer: (D)

Explanation

Mango is listed among Fiji’s potential tree crops, along with pawpaw, heart of palm, and mulberry. Duruka is a grass, gardenia is an ornamental, and rourou is a vegetable.

64. Why are edible bamboo, paper mulberry, and mushrooms considered important potential crops in Fiji?

A. Their cultivation replaces the need to develop other agricultural products

B. Demand from foreigners may create local production and export opportunities

C. Their present production already exceeds that of Fiji’s major crops

D. They require no processing and grow successfully in every region

Answer: (B)

Explanation

These crops are considered potential because foreign demand may support local production and future exports. Potential status refers to future development capacity, not necessarily to current dominance or effortless cultivation.

65. Which description correctly identifies paper mulberry?

A. An evergreen, monoecious grass cultivated mainly for animal feed

B. A perennial aquatic herb used primarily for ornamental ponds

C. A climbing plant whose flowers provide the main commercial product

D. A deciduous, dioecious shrub or tree used for food, fibre, and medicine

Answer: (D)

Explanation

Paper mulberry is a deciduous and dioecious shrub or tree, commonly 10 to 20 metres tall, with uses in food, fibre, and medicine. Dioecious plants have male and female flowers on separate plants, unlike monoecious plants.

66. Why must fresh bamboo shoots be thoroughly cooked before they are eaten?

A. Cooking increases their fibre content for digestion

B. Cooking destroys their cyanogenic glycosides

C. Cooking prevents shoots from becoming woody after harvest

D. Cooking changes their dioecious reproductive structure

Answer: (B)

Explanation

Raw bamboo shoots contain cyanogenic glycosides, so thorough cooking is needed to destroy these toxins. Cooking is a food-safety step rather than a method for changing reproduction, fibre content, or post-harvest growth.

67. What happened after Tilapia mossambicus was introduced into ponds at Nacocolevu in 1954?

A. It became Fiji’s first commercial shrimp species at Raviravi

B. It was transferred to Naduruloulou for breeding and river release

C. It escaped into rivers and later became both a protein source and a pest

D. It was introduced to support JICA research on carp spawning

Answer: (C)

Explanation

Tilapia mossambicus was introduced for pond production and later escaped into surrounding rivers, where it became both useful as animal protein and problematic for other cultured species. The other events concern later stations, shrimp farming, or research programs.

68. What was the main purpose of establishing the Naduruloulou Government Freshwater Station in 1976?

A. To introduce silver carp through a JICA research program

B. To breed carp and tilapia for release into major rivers

C. To conduct brackish-water shrimp trials at a commercial farm

D. To produce post-larvae of Panaeus monodon for export

Answer: (B)

Explanation

Naduruloulou was established as a freshwater station where carp and tilapia from Lami were transferred for breeding and release into major rivers. Brackish-water trials were associated with Raviravi, while JICA assistance came later.

69. Why did the Raviravi farm introduce Panaeus stylirostris in 1984?

A. The farm shifted from aquaculture to carp breeding research

B. The earlier shrimp species had escaped into surrounding rivers

C. The species was needed to stock Naduruloulou’s freshwater ponds

D. The farm had difficulty producing Panaeus monodon post-larvae

Answer: (D)

Explanation

Raviravi introduced Panaeus stylirostris in 1984 after experiencing difficulties producing Panaeus monodon post-larvae. Raviravi was Fiji’s first commercial shrimp farm, not a freshwater carp station.

70. Which objective best reflects the intended role of commercial aquaculture in Fiji?

A. To focus production on exports without considering ecological sustainability

B. To diversify food and income while reducing pressure on limited inshore fisheries

C. To replace freshwater research with private shrimp farming operations

D. To increase harvests by concentrating employment in coastal communities

Answer: (B)

Explanation

Commercial aquaculture is intended to provide a long-term alternative to limited inshore fisheries while supporting food security, income, employment, foreign exchange, research, training, and ecological sustainability. Export growth is one aim, but it is not intended to override environmental responsibility or the broader objectives.