Quiz: Health Care Ethics — 27 questions

1. Regarding the foundations of ethics and morals, which statements are correct?

A. Ethics describes customs without assessing human actions.

B. Ethics guides healthcare professionals toward integrity and respect in patient care.

C. Professional etiquette concerns manners and traditions of practice.

D. Ethics concerns technical clinical procedures rather than human conduct.

E. Ethics evaluates whether human actions are right or wrong.

Answer: (B), (C), (E)

Explanation

Ethics evaluates whether human actions are right or wrong and guides professional integrity and respect. Professional etiquette concerns manners and practice traditions, not moral evaluation.

2. Concerning the branches of ethics, select the accurate statements:

A. Normative ethics records existing beliefs without evaluating conduct.

B. Descriptive ethics reports values held by cultural, religious, and social groups.

C. Analytical ethics examines the meaning of moral terms and judgments.

D. Analytical ethics focuses on clinical procedures rather than moral reasoning.

E. Normative ethics identifies which actions are right or wrong.

Answer: (B), (C), (E)

Explanation

Descriptive ethics reports values held by cultural, religious, and social groups. Normative ethics evaluates right and wrong actions, while analytical ethics examines the meaning and reasoning behind moral terms and judgments.

3. Which statements accurately characterize bioethics?

A. Bioethics concerns professional manners and institutional traditions.

B. Bioethics addresses ethical issues involving life and biomedical research.

C. Bioethics includes ethical questions concerning medicines and healthcare.

D. Bioethics examines ethical issues within the medical profession.

E. Bioethics addresses financial accounting in healthcare institutions.

Answer: (B), (C), (D)

Explanation

Bioethics addresses ethical issues involving life, biomedical research, medicines, healthcare, and the medical profession. It is therefore broader than a focus limited to nursing practice or hospital etiquette.

4. The following statements describe morals and nursing ethics accurately:

A. The term morals derives from the Latin word mos.

B. Nursing ethics guides safe, compassionate, respectful, and fair care.

C. Morals are personal principles concerning right and wrong.

D. Mos refers to custom, habit, or manner of behavior.

E. Nursing ethics is limited to hospital etiquette and customary manners.

Answer: (A), (B), (C), (D)

Explanation

Morals are personal principles concerning right and wrong and derive from the Latin mos, meaning custom, habit, or manner of behavior. Nursing ethics instead guides nurses’ professional practice through moral principles, standards, and values.

5. Regarding human acts and acts of a human, which statements are correct?

A. A human act is performed by a moral agent using reasoning.

B. A knee jerk is an act of a human involving deliberate reasoning.

C. An act of a human requires conscious moral deliberation.

D. Breathing occurs as an act of a human without conscious awareness.

E. Following a prescribed diet can constitute a human act.

Answer: (A), (D), (E)

Explanation

A human act involves a moral agent who acts with awareness and reasoning, whereas an act of a human occurs without conscious mental awareness. Breathing and a knee jerk illustrate acts of a human, while following a prescribed diet illustrates a human act.

6. Which statements correctly identify the elements of a human act?

A. A human act is defined by physical movement without awareness.

B. An unconscious bodily act contains the three elements of a human act.

C. Knowledge is one element of a human act.

D. Voluntariness is one element of a human act.

E. Freedom is one element of a human act.

Answer: (C), (D), (E)

Explanation

The three elements of a human act are knowledge, freedom, and voluntariness. An unconscious bodily act does not meet the same requirement for an aware, reasoned human act.

7. Concerning the determinants of a human act, identify the accurate statements:

A. The circumstances surrounding an act help determine its moral character.

B. The object of the act is one determinant of a human act.

C. Knowledge, freedom, and voluntariness are the determinants of a human act.

D. The common good replaces circumstances among the determinants of every act.

E. The agent’s motive or volition is one determinant of a human act.

Answer: (A), (B), (E)

Explanation

The determinants of a human act are its object, the agent’s motive or volition, and its circumstances. These determinants differ from the elements of knowledge, freedom, and voluntariness.

8. Regarding professional codes of ethics, which statements are accurate?

A. A code of ethics applies to personal conduct outside professional practice.

B. A code of ethics establishes legally enforceable requirements.

C. A code of ethics formally states a professional group’s ideas and values.

D. A code of ethics informs the public about professional commitment.

E. A code of ethics establishes standards for professional actions.

Answer: (C), (D), (E)

Explanation

A code of ethics formally expresses a group’s ideas and values, establishes professional standards, and informs the public of its commitment. Legally enforceable requirements are established by law rather than by the code itself.

9. Which statements correctly describe the Philippine Code of Ethics for Nurses?

A. It was issued as Board Resolution 220, series of 2005.

B. It is identified as Board Resolution 220, series of 2004.

C. It was established under a code governing hospital etiquette.

D. It is based on the first official ANA Code issued in 1950.

E. It is based on the Code of Good Governance for Professions in the Philippines.

Answer: (B), (E)

Explanation

The Philippine Code of Ethics for Nurses is Board Resolution 220, series of 2004, and it is based on the Code of Good Governance for Professions in the Philippines. The stated issuance is not the first official ANA code or a different board resolution.

10. The responsibility areas identified in the Code of Ethics for Nurses include which statements?

A. Alleviation of suffering is a responsibility area for nurses.

B. Restoration of health is a responsibility area for nurses.

C. Promotion of health is a responsibility area for nurses.

D. Assistance with peaceful death is a responsibility area for nurses.

E. Prevention of illness is a responsibility area for nurses.

Answer: (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

Explanation

The five responsibility areas are promotion of health, prevention of illness, alleviation of suffering, restoration of health, and assistance with peaceful death. These areas describe the profession’s broad responsibilities across the course of care.

11. Which statements reflect duties required by the Code of Ethics for Nurses?

A. Nurses must preserve life and human rights while maintaining integrity.

B. Nurses must advocate for patient rights and collaborate with coworkers.

C. Nurses must respect patients’ values, customs, and spiritual beliefs.

D. Nurses must provide quality care and accurate documentation.

E. Nurses must disclose confidential information to support patient advocacy.

Answer: (A), (B), (C), (D)

Explanation

The Code requires respect for values, customs, spiritual beliefs, freedom, and confidentiality, along with quality care, accurate documentation, advocacy, collaboration, preservation of life and human rights, loyalty, integrity, and continuing learning. Confidentiality protects personal information, whereas advocacy safeguards patient rights.

12. Regarding conscience and moral distress, which statements are accurate?

A. Moral distress describes uncertainty about whether an action is right.

B. Moral distress occurs when a nurse is prevented from a correct action.

C. Conscience makes a personal judgment about right and wrong in a situation.

D. A certain conscience remains indecisive about the morality of an action.

E. A doubtful conscience reaches a conclusion without moral hesitation.

Answer: (B), (C)

Explanation

A conscience is an internal judgment about right and wrong in a specific situation, informed by knowledge and values. A certain conscience is convinced, whereas a doubtful conscience remains indecisive; moral distress instead concerns being prevented from performing the known correct action.

13. Concerning moral distress, select the exact statements:

A. Moral distress describes a nurse’s lack of knowledge about ethical duties.

B. Moral distress involves knowing the correct action but being unable to perform it.

C. Moral distress means experiencing disagreement without identifying a preferred action.

D. Moral distress refers to uncertainty about which action is morally correct.

E. Moral distress can arise when external circumstances prevent appropriate nursing action.

Answer: (B), (E)

Explanation

Moral distress occurs when a nurse knows the correct action but cannot carry it out. It is not simply uncertainty, guilt after acting, or a general conflict between colleagues.

14. The recommended response to moral distress includes:

A. Assessing the source and severity of the distress before acting toward change.

B. Acting toward change before asking why the person experiences distress.

C. Asking why the person is distressed and affirming the concern with others.

D. Assigning responsibility for the distress before examining its source or severity.

E. Identifying the distress, discussing it with others, and pursuing a desired change.

Answer: (A), (C), (E)

Explanation

The response process begins by asking why the person is distressed, then affirming the concern with others, assessing its source and severity, and acting toward the desired change. The sequence therefore includes inquiry, shared affirmation, assessment, and action.

15. Regarding teleological and deontological theories, which statements are accurate?

A. Deontological theories evaluate an action primarily through its consequences.

B. Deontological theories assess morality through duty and the action itself.

C. Teleological theories judge actions by their consequences.

D. Teleological theories determine morality from the action’s inherent duty.

E. Immanuel Kant is associated with deontological ethical reasoning.

Answer: (B), (C), (E)

Explanation

Teleological theories evaluate actions by their consequences, while deontological theories focus on the action’s nature and duty. The attribution to Immanuel Kant is associated with deontological ethics, not consequence-based teleology.

16. Concerning virtue ethics, tick the accurate statements:

A. Virtue ethics identifies virtue as a mean between deficiency and excess.

B. Virtue ethics seeks moderation rather than maximizing personal self-interest.

C. Virtue ethics defines virtue as the vice of excessive behavior.

D. The balanced mean between opposing vices is called the Golden Mean.

E. Egoistic theory and virtue ethics both primarily seek the Golden Mean.

Answer: (A), (B), (D)

Explanation

Virtue ethics describes virtue as a mean between deficiency and excess, called the Golden Mean. This approach differs from egoistic theory, which maximizes personal self-interest rather than seeking a balanced mean.

17. Which statements correctly describe casuistry?

A. Casuistry is a case-based method of moral reasoning.

B. Casuistry can address ethical problems through examination of particular situations.

C. Casuistry determines moral answers by avoiding analysis of individual cases.

D. Casuistry is defined as maximizing personal benefit in every dilemma.

E. Casuistry analyzes concrete cases when resolving moral dilemmas.

Answer: (A), (B), (E)

Explanation

Casuistry is a case-based reasoning method that examines concrete situations to resolve moral dilemmas. It is therefore focused on applying ethical reasoning to particular cases rather than relying solely on abstract rules.

18. Scott B. Rae’s moral reasoning model includes which elements?

A. The model identifies relevant virtues or principles and lists possible alternatives.

B. The model compares alternatives with relevant virtues or principles.

C. The model makes a decision before gathering facts or identifying ethical issues.

D. The model begins by gathering facts and determining the ethical issues.

E. The model considers consequences before making a final decision.

Answer: (A), (B), (D), (E)

Explanation

Scott B. Rae’s model gathers facts, identifies ethical issues, identifies relevant virtues or principles, lists and compares alternatives, considers consequences, and makes a decision. It therefore includes both principle-based comparison and consequence assessment before deciding.

19. Regarding the definition and purpose of law, which statements are accurate?

A. Law consists of personal moral preferences without public direction.

B. Law is made by a proper or legitimate authority.

C. Moral obligations are necessarily enacted as laws by proper authority.

D. Law is an ordinance of reason directed toward the common good.

E. St. Thomas Aquinas is associated with this definition of law.

Answer: (B), (D), (E)

Explanation

Law is an ordinance of reason made by proper authority and directed toward the common good. St. Thomas Aquinas is the stated attribution; moral obligations may exist without being legally enforceable.

20. Concerning the principal branches of law, select the accurate statements:

A. Civil law defines major crimes prosecuted by the state.

B. Administrative law governs private contractual rights between individuals.

C. Administrative law regulates government agencies’ organization and functioning.

D. Criminal law defines major crimes within the legal system.

E. Civil law governs private rights and obligations.

Answer: (C), (D), (E)

Explanation

Civil law governs private rights and obligations, criminal law defines major crimes, and administrative law regulates government agencies. These branches therefore address different legal domains rather than sharing the same function.

21. Which statement correctly distinguishes legal and moral obligations?

A. A moral obligation may exist without being legally enforceable.

B. Legal obligations arise from ethical principles but lack formal enforcement.

C. Moral obligations are formal duties enforced through the legal system.

D. Moral obligations arise from ethical principles rather than legal enforcement.

E. Legal obligations are formal duties enforceable under law.

Answer: (A), (D), (E)

Explanation

Legal obligations are formal duties enforceable under law, whereas moral obligations arise from ethical principles and lack legal enforceability. The social media model instead asks whether a decision can withstand public scrutiny.

22. Regarding informed consent, which of the following statements are correct?

A. Presumed consent requires the same comprehensive explanation as informed consent.

B. Informed consent provides an honest explanation in a language the patient understands.

C. Informed consent includes competence, disclosure, comprehension, and voluntariness.

D. Verbal consent requires a signed form documenting the explained medical process.

E. Presumed consent applies in specified urgent circumstances rather than ordinary situations.

Answer: (B), (C), (E)

Explanation

Informed consent requires competence, disclosure, comprehension, and voluntariness. It involves an honest explanation in an understandable form, whereas presumed consent is limited to specified urgent circumstances; written consent uses a signed form, while verbal consent follows explanation without a written form.

23. The major elements of informed consent include:

A. A signed form documenting the patient’s decision.

B. Competence of the patient to make the decision.

C. Comprehension of the information provided by the clinician.

D. Disclosure of relevant information about the proposed procedure.

E. Voluntary agreement without coercion or undue pressure.

Answer: (B), (C), (D), (E)

Explanation

The four major elements are competence, disclosure, comprehension, and voluntariness. Informed consent depends on understanding and voluntary choice; a signed form describes written consent, not the complete definition of informed consent.

24. A legally capable patient refuses a recommended medical treatment after receiving relevant information. Which statements are correct?

A. Presumed consent authorizes treatment despite the patient’s informed refusal.

B. The refusal can be valid without any decision-making capacity.

C. Healthcare providers are released from responsibility for consequences of that informed refusal.

D. The patient may refuse the recommended medical treatment.

E. The patient’s informed refusal concerns the treatment decision itself.

Answer: (A), (C), (D), (E)

Explanation

A legally capable patient may refuse diagnostic or medical treatment. When that refusal is informed, providers are released from responsibility for resulting consequences; this rule concerns treatment refusal, not merely the existence of a signed form or an emergency presumption.

25. Which rights are recognized for patients receiving healthcare?

A. Privacy and confidentiality during healthcare encounters.

B. Leaving against medical advice after consequences are explained.

C. Choice of healthcare provider and facility.

D. Access to quality humane care without discrimination.

E. Religious belief and assistance must be excluded from patient rights.

Answer: (A), (B), (C), (D)

Explanation

Patients have rights to humane, nondiscriminatory care, dignity, privacy, confidentiality, information, records, and grievance expression. Leaving against medical advice remains possible after the patient is informed of consequences; religious assistance and provider choice are also recognized rights.

26. Regarding patient responsibilities during healthcare, which statements are correct?

A. Patients may disregard informed-consent consequences when exercising their rights.

B. Patients should provide accurate health, demographic, and insurance information.

C. Patients are expected to maintain wellness as part of responsible cooperation.

D. Patients should follow hospital rules and communicate transparently.

E. Patients should report symptoms and ask questions about their care.

Answer: (B), (C), (D), (E)

Explanation

Patients are expected to exercise rights responsibly by reporting symptoms, asking questions, providing accurate information, following hospital rules, communicating transparently, and supporting wellness. Patient obligations concern cooperation with care, whereas rights protect choices and access.

27. Which forms of patient information or documentation may be requested?

A. A written treatment summary or medical certificate after confinement.

B. Information about the patient’s disease and treatment.

C. Details concerning care already administered and prescribed medication.

D. Unrestricted correspondence and visiting access in every hospital area.

E. An itemized bill for healthcare services received.

Answer: (A), (B), (C), (E)

Explanation

Patients may request information about their disease, treatment, administered care, prescribed medication, itemized bills, written treatment summaries, and medical certificates after confinement. Restrictions on visitors or correspondence may instead arise from infection, age, location, specific items, or visiting time.