Santé publique et indicateurs sanitaires Practice Quiz (27 questions)

1. Which combination best describes Santé publique France’s role in public health?

A. It accredits medical schools, licenses health professionals, and regulates pharmaceutical patents.

B. It monitors and prevents health problems, intervenes, produces epidemiological data, and guides health policy.

C. It funds private clinics, conducts individual consultations, and determines patients’ treatment plans.

D. It provides clinical treatment, manages hospitals, and sets the prices of medical services.

Answer: (B)

Explanation

Santé publique France monitors and prevents health problems, intervenes in public health, produces epidemiological data, and helps guide health policy in France. Managing hospitals and setting medical-service prices are not the roles described here.

2. A public health team is looking for quantitative findings from surveillance, investigations, epidemiological surveys, and risk assessments. What type of material does the BEH primarily publish?

A. Quantitative reports of surveillance, investigations, epidemiological surveys, and risk assessments.

B. Opinion pieces discussing health policy without presenting epidemiological results.

C. Hospital directories listing services, staffing levels, and available medical equipment.

D. Clinical guidelines based mainly on individual treatment trials and therapeutic protocols.

Answer: (A)

Explanation

The BEH primarily publishes work on surveillance, investigations, epidemiological surveys, and risk assessments based on quantitative data. Clinical treatment guidelines may use research evidence, but they are not the publication focus identified here.

3. Which pair of public health measures can help prevent cervical cancer?

A. Vaccination and screening.

B. Stroke rehabilitation and blood-pressure monitoring.

C. Surgical treatment and palliative care.

D. Antibiotic treatment and contact tracing.

Answer: (A)

Explanation

Cervical cancer is preventable through vaccination and screening. Antibiotic treatment and contact tracing are relevant to some infections, but they are not the prevention pair specified for this cancer.

4. In France in 2022, which figure represents the standardized rate of hospitalizations for stroke?

A. 247.3 hospitalizations per 100,000 inhabitants.

B. 50.6 hospitalizations per 100,000 inhabitants.

C. 102 hospitalizations per 100,000 inhabitants.

D. 28.9 hospitalizations per 100,000 inhabitants.

Answer: (A)

Explanation

The 2022 standardized hospitalization rate for stroke in France was 247.3 per 100,000 inhabitants. The rate of 50.6 per 100,000 refers to stroke deaths, not hospitalizations.

5. Which ordering correctly gives the 2022 incidence rates per 100,000 for chlamydia, gonorrhea, and syphilis, respectively?

A. 44, 21, and 102.

B. 102, 44, and 21.

C. 21, 102, and 44.

D. 102, 21, and 44.

Answer: (B)

Explanation

The respective 2022 incidence rates were 102 for chlamydia, 44 for gonorrhea, and 21 for syphilis per 100,000. The alternative ordering that begins 102, 21, and 44 assigns the rates for gonorrhea and syphilis incorrectly.

6. How does one-year stroke case fatality compare between hemorrhagic and ischemic stroke?

A. It is 37.9% for hemorrhagic stroke and 20.8% for ischemic stroke.

B. It is 20.8% for hemorrhagic stroke and 37.9% for ischemic stroke.

C. It is 10.0% for hemorrhagic stroke and 28.9% for ischemic stroke.

D. It is 28.9% for hemorrhagic stroke and 10.0% for ischemic stroke.

Answer: (A)

Explanation

One-year case fatality is 37.9% for hemorrhagic stroke and 20.8% for ischemic stroke. The figures of 28.9% and 10.0% are the corresponding in-hospital case-fatality rates, not the one-year rates.

7. Which statement correctly describes France’s 2023 HPV vaccination coverage?

A. At least one dose covered 54.6% at age 15, while two doses covered 44.7% at age 16.

B. Two doses covered 54.6% at age 15, while at least one dose covered 44.7% at age 16.

C. Two doses covered 44.7% at age 15, while at least one dose covered 54.6% at age 16.

D. At least one dose covered 44.7% at age 15, while two doses covered 54.6% at age 16.

Answer: (A)

Explanation

In 2023, HPV vaccination coverage was 54.6% for at least one dose by age 15 and 44.7% for two doses by age 16. The alternative that assigns 54.6% to two doses at age 15 swaps both the dose and age categories.

8. Which set contains individual risk factors for stroke?

A. Diabetes, depression, chronic kidney disease, migraine, and smoking

B. High cholesterol, asthma, osteoporosis, atrial fibrillation, and alcohol use

C. Obesity, anemia, thyroid disease, high blood pressure, and inactivity

D. High blood pressure, diabetes, obesity, atrial fibrillation, and smoking

Answer: (D)

Explanation

The listed individual stroke risk factors include high blood pressure, diabetes, obesity, atrial fibrillation, and smoking. Other conditions in the distractors may affect health, but they do not match the specified set.

9. Which combination of circumstances can contribute to sexually transmitted infection risk and unequal access to prevention?

A. Risky sexual practices, multiple partners, limited condom use, and barriers to education, care, and screening

B. Low physical activity, poor diet, limited vaccination, and barriers to cancer treatment

C. Multiple partners, routine condom use, broad access to sexual-health education, and nearby screening

D. Risky sexual practices, prompt access to care, equal screening access, and extensive sexual-health education

Answer: (A)

Explanation

IST determinants include risky sexual practices, including among men who have sex with men, multiple partnerships, non-use of condoms, and barriers to education, care, and screening. The third choice includes several protective conditions rather than the stated barriers.

10. How can social disadvantage affect prevention of cervical cancer?

A. It can reduce vaccination and screening, while information gaps, taboos, and unequal access to care create further barriers

B. It can increase vaccination and screening, while access to prevention services becomes more equal

C. It can reduce screening but has little connection to vaccination or access to prevention services

D. It can affect treatment access, while screening and vaccination coverage remain similar across regions

Answer: (A)

Explanation

Precarity is associated with lower vaccination and screening, and prevention is further hindered by reluctance, limited information, taboos, and unequal access to care and prevention services. The third choice incorrectly disconnects precarity from vaccination and access barriers.

11. A community program aims to prevent strokes before they occur. Which approach best fits primary prevention?

A. Provide rehabilitation, therapeutic education, and support for disability after a stroke

B. Teach residents to recognize warning signs and call emergency services quickly using FAST

C. Expand acute stroke units and access to clot-removing procedures

D. Run campaigns against smoking and inactivity while promoting balanced eating and physical activity

Answer: (D)

Explanation

Primary stroke prevention addresses risk before a stroke occurs through measures such as anti-smoking and anti-inactivity campaigns, balanced nutrition, and physical activity. Recognizing warning signs and arranging emergency treatment are secondary-prevention measures.

12. After a person develops signs of stroke, which response is part of secondary prevention?

A. Offer HPV vaccination and combined screening for HIV, hepatitis, and bacterial infections

B. Recognize warning signs, call emergency services promptly using FAST, and provide access to acute stroke treatments

C. Provide functional rehabilitation and education after the acute event

D. Promote exercise and balanced diets to reduce risk factors before a stroke occurs

Answer: (B)

Explanation

Secondary stroke prevention includes recognition of warning signs, a rapid emergency call guided by FAST, neurovascular units, thrombolysis, and mechanical thrombectomy. Rehabilitation after the event is tertiary prevention, not the acute response described here.

13. A patient is recovering from a stroke and needs support to improve quality of life. Which care plan best represents tertiary prevention?

A. Public campaigns encouraging exercise and balanced eating to prevent strokes

B. Functional rehabilitation, therapeutic education, and management of resulting disabilities

C. Targeted screening and condom promotion to reduce sexually transmitted infections

D. Rapid emergency assessment followed by thrombolysis or mechanical thrombectomy

Answer: (B)

Explanation

Tertiary stroke prevention includes rehabilitation, therapeutic education, and care for disabilities to improve quality of life after stroke. Emergency clot-removal treatments belong to acute secondary prevention.

14. Which package best describes prevention of sexually transmitted infections?

A. Stroke warning-sign education, emergency referral, neurovascular units, and clot-removing procedures

B. Condom promotion, sexual-health education, clinician training, targeted screening, combined testing, and PrEP follow-up

C. Antibiotic treatment after infection, with cultures and susceptibility testing to limit resistance

D. HPV vaccination campaigns alongside rehabilitation and disability management

Answer: (B)

Explanation

IST prevention includes condom promotion, sexual-health education, general-practitioner training, targeted and systematic screening, combined screening for HIV, hepatitis, and bacterial ISTs, and PrEP follow-up. The antibiotic-focused approach concerns treatment of bacterial infections and resistance prevention rather than the broader prevention package.

15. A health department divides all deaths in a population during one year by the population total. Which indicator is it calculating?

A. The premature mortality rate

B. The case-fatality rate

C. The cause-specific mortality rate

D. The crude mortality rate

Answer: (D)

Explanation

The crude mortality rate relates deaths during a specified period, often a year, to the total population. A cause-specific rate instead concerns deaths from a particular cause or within a defined population subgroup.

16. A report calculates deaths from one disease among people aged 65–74. Which indicator does this represent?

A. The case-fatality rate

B. The specific mortality rate

C. Life expectancy at birth

D. The crude mortality rate

Answer: (B)

Explanation

A specific mortality rate measures deaths by a defined cause or by a population category such as age or sex. The crude rate uses the population total as its denominator rather than focusing on a cause or subgroup.

17. Researchers measure the proportion of people with a disease who die from it during a defined period. What does this indicator assess?

A. The case-fatality rate, which indicates the disease’s severity

B. The crude mortality rate, which relates all deaths to the total population

C. The specific mortality rate, which groups deaths by cause or population category

D. The premature mortality rate, which counts deaths before a defined age

Answer: (A)

Explanation

The case-fatality rate is the proportion of people affected by a disease who die from it during a specified period, and it reflects the disease’s severity. A cause-specific mortality rate counts deaths in a population, rather than measuring the proportion of affected people who die.

18. If current mortality conditions remain unchanged, what does life expectancy at birth estimate?

A. The proportion of people with a particular disease who will die

B. The number of deaths in the population during a given year

C. The number of deaths before a defined age that prevention could avert

D. The average number of years a person can expect to live

Answer: (D)

Explanation

Life expectancy at birth estimates the average years a person can expect to live under unchanged mortality conditions and summarizes a population’s overall health. The proportion of affected people who die is case fatality, not life expectancy.

19. A health agency counts everyone who has a disease on a particular date, including people whose illness began earlier and people newly diagnosed. Which measure is it calculating?

A. Attack rate, which captures new cases during an epidemic

B. Prevalence, which captures the total disease burden at a given point in time

C. Incidence, which captures new cases arising during a defined period

D. Hospitalization rate, which captures admissions for a cause relative to the population

Answer: (B)

Explanation

Prevalence includes both existing and new cases present in a population at a particular time. Incidence differs because it counts new cases occurring over a specified period.

20. To estimate how quickly a disease is occurring, researchers count newly diagnosed cases in a population over six months. Which measure best fits this purpose?

A. Attack rate, because it counts new cases during an epidemic

B. Incidence, because it counts new cases arising over a specified period

C. Hospitalization rate, because it relates admissions to the population

D. Prevalence, because it counts all cases present at a specified time

Answer: (B)

Explanation

Incidence measures the occurrence of new cases during a defined period, making it suitable for assessing the rate at which disease arises. Prevalence instead counts all cases present at a particular point in time.

21. A survey reports the percentage of respondents who describe their health as good or very good. What does this indicator primarily measure?

A. Functional limitation, reflecting difficulty with activities of daily living

B. Morbidity, reflecting the occurrence of diseases in the population

C. Self-rated health, reflecting individual perceptions and overall well-being

D. Mortality, reflecting deaths within the population

Answer: (C)

Explanation

Self-rated health is the percentage of people reporting good or very good health and reflects perceived health and overall well-being. Functional limitation instead concerns restrictions in daily activities.

22. Which group consists of composite health indicators that combine information about years of life and health-related outcomes?

A. Self-rated health, functional limitation, and hospitalization rate

B. Years of life lost, disability-adjusted life years, and quality-adjusted life years

C. Primary prevention, secondary prevention, and tertiary prevention

D. Incidence, prevalence, and attack rate

Answer: (B)

Explanation

The composite indicators listed are years of life lost (YLL), disability-adjusted life years (DALY), and quality-adjusted life years (QALY). Incidence, prevalence, and attack rate are measures of disease occurrence rather than this set of composite indicators.

23. A community program aims to prevent a disease from developing among healthy residents and thereby reduce its incidence. Which level of prevention does this describe?

A. Secondary prevention, which identifies disease at an early stage

B. Tertiary prevention, which limits complications after disease develops

C. Targeted prevention, which supports people who already have disease

D. Primary prevention, which acts before the disease appears

Answer: (D)

Explanation

Primary prevention seeks to stop a disease or disorder from appearing in a healthy population and reduce incidence. Secondary prevention instead focuses on early detection among people who may be asymptomatic or in an early disease phase.

24. A screening service identifies a disease in people who have no symptoms, enabling prompt treatment to reduce the chance of complications. Which level of prevention is being used?

A. Tertiary prevention, which limits the effects of established disease

B. Universal prevention, which addresses the entire population regardless of health status

C. Secondary prevention, which detects disease early

D. Primary prevention, which aims to prevent disease onset

Answer: (C)

Explanation

Secondary prevention detects disease early in asymptomatic people or at an early stage so treatment can begin promptly and complications can be avoided. Tertiary prevention instead limits complications and lasting effects in people who are already ill.

25. A rehabilitation plan for people with an established illness aims to reduce relapses, complications, and lasting disability while improving quality of life. Which level of prevention does it represent?

A. Tertiary prevention, aimed at limiting consequences of established illness

B. Primary prevention, aimed at preventing disease onset

C. Secondary prevention, aimed at detecting disease early

D. Oriented prevention, aimed at preventing disease among people at risk

Answer: (A)

Explanation

Tertiary prevention addresses people who are ill or have disabilities, seeking to limit relapses, complications, and sequelae while improving quality of life. Secondary prevention focuses on detecting disease early rather than managing its longer-term consequences.

26. A public health team offers one program to everyone, another to people at elevated risk of a particular disease, and a third to people already ill to help them manage treatment. How are these approaches classified, respectively?

A. Universal prevention, oriented prevention, and targeted prevention

B. Oriented prevention, universal prevention, and tertiary prevention

C. Universal prevention, tertiary prevention, and oriented prevention

D. Targeted prevention, oriented prevention, and universal prevention

Answer: (A)

Explanation

Universal prevention addresses the whole population, oriented prevention targets people at risk to prevent the disease threatening them, and targeted prevention supports people who are ill in managing treatment. Tertiary prevention concerns limiting consequences of established illness, not the population-wide approach described first.

27. Which set of outcomes can be associated with sexually transmitted infections (STIs)?

A. Chronic pelvic pain, infertility, cancer, reduced mother-to-child transmission, and lower HIV transmission risk

B. Chronic pelvic pain, infertility, cancer, increased mother-to-child transmission, and greater HIV transmission risk

C. Chronic pelvic pain, improved fertility, cancer, increased mother-to-child transmission, and lower HIV transmission risk

D. Acute pelvic pain, improved fertility, cancer prevention, reduced mother-to-child transmission, and lower HIV transmission risk

Answer: (B)

Explanation

STIs can cause chronic pelvic pain, infertility, and cancer, and can increase both mother-to-child transmission and the risk of HIV transmission. The option suggesting reduced transmission risks reverses these effects.